Communities

Writing
Writing
Codidact Meta
Codidact Meta
The Great Outdoors
The Great Outdoors
Photography & Video
Photography & Video
Scientific Speculation
Scientific Speculation
Cooking
Cooking
Electrical Engineering
Electrical Engineering
Judaism
Judaism
Languages & Linguistics
Languages & Linguistics
Software Development
Software Development
Mathematics
Mathematics
Christianity
Christianity
Code Golf
Code Golf
Music
Music
Physics
Physics
Linux Systems
Linux Systems
Power Users
Power Users
Tabletop RPGs
Tabletop RPGs
Community Proposals
Community Proposals
tag:snake search within a tag
answers:0 unanswered questions
user:xxxx search by author id
score:0.5 posts with 0.5+ score
"snake oil" exact phrase
votes:4 posts with 4+ votes
created:<1w created < 1 week ago
post_type:xxxx type of post
Search help
Notifications
Mark all as read See all your notifications »
Q&A

What does "se" mean in Micah 6:8, "Ya se te ha declarado..."?

+5
−0

What is the purpose of "se" in the following text from Micah 6:8 (Nueva Versión Internacional)?

¡Ya se te ha declarado lo que es bueno!
Ya se te ha dicho lo que de ti espera el Señor

It doesn't seem like this is "declararse" or "decirse." But the passive "se" doesn't seem to fit either.

Note that the RVR1960 doesn't include "se":

Oh hombre, él te ha declarado lo que es bueno, y qué pide Jehová de ti

Why did the translators of the NVI include "se" in this verse?

History
Why does this post require moderator attention?
You might want to add some details to your flag.
Why should this post be closed?

1 comment thread

General comments (4 comments)

2 answers

You are accessing this answer with a direct link, so it's being shown above all other answers regardless of its score. You can return to the normal view.

+4
−0

I speak Spanish well, but not Hebrew.

As user7078 suggested, the sentence as translated in the NVI says

"Already it has been declared to you what is good. Already it has been told to you what J-h requires from you: etc..."

"It has been declared" is a good translation because הִגִּ֥יד, according to wiktionary means simply "to declare", and the person is only specified later in the sentence.

Mechon-mamre gives a similar rendition:

It hath been told thee, O man, what is good, and what the LORD doth require of thee: only to do...

Biblehub's interlineal may be helpful to show the non-English syntax of the original, and how alike English and Spanish are by comparison.

History
Why does this post require moderator attention?
You might want to add some details to your flag.

1 comment thread

General comments (2 comments)
+3
−1

Unlike the other answerer, I speak Hebrew well but not much Spanish. Hopefully between the two of us we can resolve this question sufficiently.

The original Hebrew reads,

הגיד לך אדם מה טוב ומה ה׳ דרש ממך

which I will translate as literally as possible as:

It has been told to you, Man, that which is good and that which the L-rd seeks from you.

The word הגיד is in passive tense, "It has been told." So I suspect the phrase Ya se te ha declarado is the translation of הגיד לך, "To you has it been stated." I'll leave it to the Spanish experts to break it down further.

History
Why does this post require moderator attention?
You might want to add some details to your flag.

1 comment thread

General comments (7 comments)

Sign up to answer this question »