In Spanish and Portuguese, a pesar de means in (de)spite of. But in both languages, pesar has never meant spite. pesar hails from Vulgar Latin *pēsāre, from Classical Latin pēnsāre. But then how does pesar yield the meaning in spite of?
This post advertises a product without disclosing the author's affiliation or without it being relevant to the topic (spam).
This post violates the Code of Conduct, as a reasonable person would find it inappropriate.
This question is off-topic or cannot be reasonably answered in its current form and needs revision by its author.
This question has been asked before and has already been answered. It should be marked as a duplicate.
This question has been addressed elsewhere.
This question is not within the scope of Languages & Linguistics.
This question cannot be answered in its current form, because critical information is missing.
This post contains multiple questions or has many possible indistinguishable correct answers or requires extraordinary long answers.
This question cannot be answered in a way that is helpful to anyone. It's not possible to learn something from possible answers, except for the solution for the specific problem of the asker.
This community is part of the Codidact network.
We have other communities too — take a look!
You can also join us in chat!
Want to advertise this community? Use our templates!