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Posts by gmcgath‭

13 posts
86%
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Q&A Why did the letter K survive in Latin, though it was rarely used?

In classical Latin, the letter C is pronounced like K. Hardly any words use the latter K; even imports from Greek turned kappa into C. A handful of words, such as "kalendae," held onto their K. In...

1 answer  ·  posted 3y ago by gmcgath‭  ·  last activity 3y ago by Moshi‭

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Q&A What's the difference between "in doing so" and "by doing so"?

It depends on the context, but generally "in doing so" refers to something that happens along with or as part of the action, and "by doing so" refers to a result of the action. In many cases either...

posted 2y ago by gmcgath‭  ·  edited 2y ago by gmcgath‭

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Q&A Why "me too" and not "I too"?

English tends to use accusative pronouns whenever they aren't clearly the subject of a sentence or clause, even when classical grammatical rules call for the nominative. Another example: "Who's the...

posted 2y ago by gmcgath‭  ·  edited 2y ago by gmcgath‭

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Q&A What is the term for a word that is an instance of itself?

Some words are examples of the concept they name. Examples: "Word" is a word. "Noun" is a noun. "Eggcorn" is an eggcorn (a mistaken word that sounds like and has some connection to another wor...

2 answers  ·  posted 1y ago by gmcgath‭  ·  edited 1y ago by Moshi‭

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Meta How to deal with questions on English grammar and usage

Languages & Linguistics has been getting some questions about relatively basic issues in the English language. There's nothing wrong with these questions as such, but they don't really fit the ...

0 answers  ·  posted 3y ago by gmcgath‭

Question discussion
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Q&A What grammatical category does "Weihnachten" fall into?

After getting various inputs, I can offer a partial answer to my own question. I'm not a native speaker, so feel free to offer a better one. The explanation Duden offers covers most of the bases. ...

posted 12mo ago by gmcgath‭

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Q&A What grammatical category does "Weihnachten" fall into?

The German word "Weihnachten" (Christmas) is an odd one. It's a neuter noun (das Weihnachten) even though it's based on a feminine one (die Nacht, night). The traditional Christmas greetings, "Froh...

1 answer  ·  posted 1y ago by gmcgath‭  ·  last activity 12mo ago by gmcgath‭

Question grammar German
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Q&A Why does German use the third person plural for the second person polite?

German has three sets of pronouns for the second person: the familiar singular (du), the familiar plural (ihr), and the polite singular or plural (Sie). The polite form is identical with the third ...

2 answers  ·  posted 2y ago by gmcgath‭  ·  last activity 3mo ago by Jirka Hanika‭

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Q&A Which phrase is correct? (Is using plural form for singular object make sense?) (Does using plural form for singular object make sense?)

The verb "do" is generally used for asking a question. Eliminating the extra words, the statement "It makes sense" turns into the question "Does it make sense?" "Is it make sense?" is grammatically...

posted 3y ago by gmcgath‭

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Q&A Why is "djinn" the plural of "djinni"?

Most reliable sources say that the Arabic-derived "djinni" is a singular word and its plural is "djinn." (Or "jinni" and "jinn," if you prefer.) The dropping of a final letter or syllable to plural...

1 answer  ·  posted 2y ago by gmcgath‭  ·  last activity 2y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

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Q&A What is the difference between a guild and a lodge?

A guild is normally a craft or trade organization. "Lodge" has many meanings, but the relevant one is a local branch or meeting place of a fraternal organization. The situation with Freemasonry ma...

posted 3y ago by gmcgath‭

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Q&A How did 'to wit' shift (from "to know") 🡺 to mean 'that is to say'?

Etymology Online suggests: The phrase to wit, almost the only surviving use of the verb, is first recorded 1570s, from earlier that is to wit (mid-14c.), probably a loan-translation of Anglo-Fre...

posted 2y ago by gmcgath‭

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Q&A How can "in terms of" alone encompass — and substitute — multiple prepositions "at, by, as, or for"?

There's a discussion of how "in terms of" came to mean "regarding" on the Grammarphobia Blog. The article suggests: "Perhaps it strikes people as more scholarly or scientific than the alternatives....

posted 2y ago by gmcgath‭

Answer