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I speak Spanish well, but not Hebrew. As user7078 suggested, the sentence as translated in the NVI says "Already it has been declared to you what is good. Already it has been told to you what J...
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#1: Initial revision
by
Conrado
·
2020-11-16T06:01:45Z (almost 4 years ago)
I speak Spanish well, but not Hebrew. As user7078 suggested, the sentence as translated in the NVI says > "Already it has been declared to you what is good. Already it has been told to you what J-h requires from you: etc..." "It has been declared" is a good translation because הִגִּ֥יד, according to [wiktionary](https://en.m.wiktionary.org/wiki/%D7%94%D7%92%D7%99%D7%93) means simply "to declare", and the person is only specified later in the sentence. [Mechon-mamre](https://www.mechon-mamre.org/p/pt/pt1806.htm) gives a similar rendition: > It hath been told thee, O man, what is good, and what the LORD doth require of thee: only to do... Biblehub's [interlineal](https://biblehub.com/interlinear/micah/6-8.htm) may be helpful to show the non-English syntax of the original, and how alike English and Spanish are by comparison.