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Comments on What does "se" mean in Micah 6:8, "Ya se te ha declarado..."?

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What does "se" mean in Micah 6:8, "Ya se te ha declarado..."?

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What is the purpose of "se" in the following text from Micah 6:8 (Nueva Versión Internacional)?

¡Ya se te ha declarado lo que es bueno!
Ya se te ha dicho lo que de ti espera el Señor

It doesn't seem like this is "declararse" or "decirse." But the passive "se" doesn't seem to fit either.

Note that the RVR1960 doesn't include "se":

Oh hombre, él te ha declarado lo que es bueno, y qué pide Jehová de ti

Why did the translators of the NVI include "se" in this verse?

Spanish
posted about 4 years ago
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Nathaniel‭
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General comments (4 comments)
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.                                                .‭ wrote about 4 years ago
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It's like the french "on".

Monica Cellio‭ wrote about 4 years ago
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Is the difference between the two "already"? (My high-school Spanish isn't good enough for this.) I don't see that in the Hebrew original, for what that's worth.

Nathaniel‭ wrote about 4 years ago
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@Monica The "already" is there in the NVI in the word "ya" and not in the RVR. But that doesn't seem to be connected to the "se".

user8078‭ wrote about 4 years ago
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I don't speak Spanish well enough to be sure, but it looks to me like "it has been declared... it has been told." Maybe you're having trouble because you expected "he has declared... he has told" instead?