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Q&A How did 'the better to —' semantically shift to mean 'So as to — better'?

I screenshot Collins and Lexico. Let's treat this like a math problem. How exactly does "the better to —" = 'So as to — better'? Please show all steps between these two expressions.

0 answers · posted 3y ago by PSTH‭ · edited 3y ago by Moshi‭

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#2: Post edited by

Moshi‭ · 2020-11-10T23:30:53Z (over 3 years ago)

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I screenshot [Collins](https://www.collinsdictionary.com/dictionary/english/the-better-to-do-something) and [Lexico](https://www.lexico.com/definition/the_better_to_%25e2%2580%2594). 

![Image alt text](https://languages.codidact.com/uploads/xTKh7c3WjbDe5qfkb8hYvHLV)

Let's treat this like a math problem. How exactly does "the better to —" =  'So as to — better'? Please show all steps between these two expressions.

#1: Initial revision by

PSTH‭ · 2020-11-10T07:31:13Z (over 3 years ago)

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How did 'the better to —' semantically shift to mean 'So as to — better'?

I screenshot [Collins](https://www.collinsdictionary.com/dictionary/english/the-better-to-do-something) and [Lexico](https://www.lexico.com/definition/the_better_to_%25e2%2580%2594). 

![Image alt text](https://languages.codidact.com/uploads/xTKh7c3WjbDe5qfkb8hYvHLV)

Let's treat this like a math problem. How exactly does "the better to —" =  'So as to — better'? Please show all steps between these two expressions.

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