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Posts by Jirka Hanika‭

79 posts
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Q&A Are Icelandic unstressed diphthongs in loanwords supposed to be reduced?

In Icelandic, certain accented vowel letters (especially ó, á) are consistently explained as diphthongs ([ou] and [au], respectively) in pronunciation guides. Accented vowel letters are also encou...

0 answers  ·  posted 2mo ago by Jirka Hanika‭

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Q&A What underlying principle is at play for how objective or subjective a natural language instruction is?

The question alludes to at least three correlated, but quite distinct dimensions. Objectivity/subjectivity Room for model's creativity (information theoretical) Crispness of the boundary betwe...

posted 2mo ago by Jirka Hanika‭

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Q&A What is "nift"?

The oldest known usage of "nifty" is in an American poem from 1868. If you read the poem at this link, you'll find that that author found it useful to comment on the meaning of the word inside the...

posted 7mo ago by Jirka Hanika‭  ·  edited 5mo ago by Jirka Hanika‭

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Q&A What's a "road colony"?

Following an earlier comment which indicated that this could be a typo for a "roach colony", @msh210 was able to confirm that this 1980 edition of the book indeed had a "roach colony" where the 198...

posted 7mo ago by Jirka Hanika‭  ·  edited 7mo ago by Jirka Hanika‭

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Q&A Has there ever been a situation of perfect bilingualism, without falling in diglossia?

The term "multiligualism" is generally used to characterize the linguistic capabilities of a single speaker. If the person uses exactly two (or at least two) languages, they are bilinguial even if...

posted 11mo ago by Jirka Hanika‭

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Q&A How to refer to a whole family in Icelandic?

In Icelandic, you are, I suppose, more likely to refer to a single person and their family, than to the family without naming any single person as well. Random example from the web: "Fjölskylda Ei...

posted 11mo ago by Jirka Hanika‭  ·  edited 11mo ago by Jirka Hanika‭

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Q&A Effectiveness of input-only learning

This question touches on many topics, and this answer doesn't hope to be comprehensive. Research on language didactics generally focusses on institutional settings (with an instructor), or, at the...

posted 11mo ago by Jirka Hanika‭

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Q&A Why is the third person singular conjugation different in the past tense?

Your question is about a particular subclass of German verbs, namely weak verbs. Weak verbs, along with their conjugation, are a Proto-Germanic invention. Proto-Germanic isn't an attested languag...

posted 1y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

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Q&A When would a sentence consist of "terdiri" with "atas" or "dari"?

The same thing can be expressed in any given language in many ways. You have not provided any source for the claim that "Kecamatan ini terdiri atas sepuluh desa." would be using the wrong word. T...

posted 1y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

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Q&A Plural agreement with a syntactically singular subject

In your example, "lot", bunch", "amount", are collective nouns. There are many collective nouns that aren't quantifiers. For example: "Microsoft have never said they have extended the free period...

posted 1y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

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Q&A What does Etymonline mean by 'to raise (someone) out of trouble'?

You are right, "raise (someone) out of trouble" is not a common English idiom. It is used to connect the English meaning (denotation and connotations) to the original Latin and/or Old French meani...

posted 1y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

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Q&A If assūmptiō = 'take up', then can ad- (prefix) = 'up'? But why, when super- = 'up'?

Indo-European spatial prepositions, when analyzed across all attested languages, are rich in beautiful, unexpected relationships[1]. You could think that the spatial relationships (above, below, b...

posted 1y ago by Jirka Hanika‭  ·  edited 1y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

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Q&A Why does German use the third person plural for the second person polite?

It is tempting for a foreigner, but perhaps not accurate to identify "Sie" as the polite (respectful) pronoun and to identify "du" as the impolite (less respectful) one, and it could be more accura...

posted 2y ago by Jirka Hanika‭  ·  edited 2y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

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Q&A How can fulsome constitute "a case of ironic understatement"?

Any understatement could be unintentional, or it could be motivated by pragmatic reasons such as hesitation to bring up a controversial point. However, more often than not, blatant or ridiculously...

posted 2y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

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Q&A Why is "djinn" the plural of "djinni"?

In some languages, the distinction between singular and plural of a noun isn't obligatorily marked at all. There are ways to be explicit about singular/plural but they are optional. (English adje...

posted 2y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

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Q&A English dialects and he/she versus it

The direct parallel of the example from Finnish does not exist in English dialects know to me. Which does not stand for much, I'm not even a native speaker. There are some basic uses of "it" whic...

posted 2y ago by Jirka Hanika‭  ·  edited 2y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

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Q&A Calling another by name when one is exasperated

This usage seems to be common not only in English, but in Western cultures in general. (The two parties do not need to be on first name terms for this pattern to work: "Oh, Mister Bennet! Have som...

posted 2y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

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Q&A Why did the Tironian et survive in Irish, when it died out everywhere else?

Irish literature is really, really old, and the Tironian shorthand had its best days before 1100, i.e., before the most of European vernacular literatures came about. This is the closest meme to a...

posted 2y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

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Q&A How did 'videlicet' (it's permissible to see) semantically shift 🢂 to signify 'to wit, namely'?

I think that this shift in meaning happened already as part of the process of borrowing from Latin. Look at the following example use of "videlicet". This is 16th century legal Latin as used in E...

posted 2y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

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Q&A How does saeculum ( “generation” or “lifetime") semantically relate to PIE root *se- "to sow"?

Wikipedia has a very nice article on what the term meant when "saeculum" was adopted into Latin from Etruscan, and Studies in Words has an extensive section on mundus/saeculum/ecclesia which explai...

posted 2y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

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Q&A How did « histoire », in « histoire de/que », semantically shift to signify "in order to/that"?

(I will suppose that the connection of French "histoire" to English "story" is rather clear, except that the English word is closer in its meaning to a "story as it is told", whereas the French one...

posted 2y ago by Jirka Hanika‭  ·  edited 2y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

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Q&A scilicet: How did 'it is permitted to know' semantically shift to signify 'that is to say, namely'?

Your hesitation to accept the interpretation on Etymonline as is may be well founded. Some scholars (e.g., Hahn) consider the idea that the first component is from the infinitive ("scire") unsubst...

posted 2y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

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Q&A What language is this (cursive) sample?

I will venture a guess that it is Haketia (also called Ladino Occidental) written in Solitreo ("Sephardic cursive"). That's a dialect of Ladino that had a strong local presence in Tangiers around ...

posted 2y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

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Q&A How did 'in-' + 'putare' compound to mean 'to attribute, credit to'?

Let's digress by looking at how the meaning of "computer" developed during the 20th century. A "computer" used to be a person, somebody doing computations; devices eventually took over the job. T...

posted 2y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

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Q&A Linguistics of categorization

In a language like English, the distinction between "singular" and "plural" forms would be called a "grammatical feature" or "grammatical category". (This is a different use of the term "category"...

posted 2y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

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