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Comments on What does "se" mean in Micah 6:8, "Ya se te ha declarado..."?

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What does "se" mean in Micah 6:8, "Ya se te ha declarado..."?

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What is the purpose of "se" in the following text from Micah 6:8 (Nueva Versión Internacional)?

¡Ya se te ha declarado lo que es bueno!
Ya se te ha dicho lo que de ti espera el Señor

It doesn't seem like this is "declararse" or "decirse." But the passive "se" doesn't seem to fit either.

Note that the RVR1960 doesn't include "se":

Oh hombre, él te ha declarado lo que es bueno, y qué pide Jehová de ti

Why did the translators of the NVI include "se" in this verse?

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General comments (4 comments)
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I speak Spanish well, but not Hebrew.

As user7078 suggested, the sentence as translated in the NVI says

"Already it has been declared to you what is good. Already it has been told to you what J-h requires from you: etc..."

"It has been declared" is a good translation because הִגִּ֥יד, according to wiktionary means simply "to declare", and the person is only specified later in the sentence.

Mechon-mamre gives a similar rendition:

It hath been told thee, O man, what is good, and what the LORD doth require of thee: only to do...

Biblehub's interlineal may be helpful to show the non-English syntax of the original, and how alike English and Spanish are by comparison.

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General comments (2 comments)
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Nathaniel‭ wrote almost 4 years ago

So then the "se" is actually the passive se after all? Interesting.

Conrado‭ wrote almost 4 years ago

@Nathaniel In Spanish it is, but I don't know if that distinction is in the Hebrew.