While the Spanish experts are here, what's up with the repeated verb declarado and dicho? There's only one verb outside the subordinate clauses, הגיד; if Spanish grammar requires that each object get its own verb phrase, why do they change the verb?

Wow, this is thrilling, thanks for the word-for-word translation! I can confirm your suspicion, except that the "Ya" is "already"--another addition: ...se te ha declarado is the translation of הגיד לך, "To you has it been stated." About the redundant verbs: the construction that you used in your literal translation would work as well in Spanish: "Se te ha dicho, Hombre, lo que es bueno y lo que J'a espera de ti." It looks like the translators wanted to highlight a poetic aspect...

... of the parallel construction (is it obviously poetry in Hebrew?)

הִגִּיד is not passive. הֻגַּד is passive. הֻגֵּד הֻגַּד לִי (Ruth 2:11) means "it has been told to me," but מִי הִגִּיד לְךָ (Genesis 3:11) means "who told you." Semantically הִגִּיד could be passive, but morphologically it isn't, so translating "as literally as possible" as passive is wrong

@user8078 So is it that הגיד by itself is just "said"? I mean, it seems like the passive voice is somehow implied in the sentence? (Donielf and you have almost hooked me on Hebrew--I am going to get a dictionary as soon as possible!)

@Conrado You could read it as "he (=God) told you" or "he (=someone) told you." The latter possibility could be idiomatically translated into English (or Spanish, apparently) as "it has been told to you," but the word is in active voice (hif'il form)

@user8078 "tense"--voice. (sheepish grin.)