Activity for gmcgath
| Type | On... | Excerpt | Status | Date |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Edit | Post #290467 | Initial revision | — | 11 months ago |
| Answer | — |
A: What grammatical category does "Weihnachten" fall into? After getting various inputs, I can offer a partial answer to my own question. I'm not a native speaker, so feel free to offer a better one. The explanation Duden offers covers most of the bases. Key points: "Weihnachten" is described as a frozen dative plural (ein erstarrter Dativ Plural) of "... (more) |
— | 11 months ago |
| Comment | Post #290447 |
We should probably stick to English in the discussion, since this is a mostly English-language site. (Translation: "Das Weihnachten" sounds totally wrong. Till now I've never heard it. "Die Weihnachten" sounds right.) But to answer your comment, the singular "Weihnachten" gets recognition from online... (more) |
— | 11 months ago |
| Comment | Post #290447 |
Found this on Reddit: https://www.reddit.com/r/German/comments/3yqlqd/why_is_it_frohe_weihnachten_instead_of_frohes/
Part of the issue, it seems, is that "Weihnachten" is singular in some expressions and plural in others. There's also "Die Weihnacht," a feminine noun which (I think) follows the no... (more) |
— | 11 months ago |
| Edit | Post #290447 | Initial revision | — | 11 months ago |
| Question | — |
What grammatical category does "Weihnachten" fall into? The German word "Weihnachten" (Christmas) is an odd one. It's a neuter noun (das Weihnachten) even though it's based on a feminine one (die Nacht, night). The traditional Christmas greetings, "Frohe Weihnachten" or "Fröhliche Weihnachten," don't follow the rules for singular neuter nouns, though they... (more) |
— | 11 months ago |
| Comment | Post #288754 |
Either one, if there's a generally accepted name for it. (more) |
— | over 1 year ago |
| Comment | Post #288538 |
I don't have any information on whether this actually happened, but it would fit with the common attitude toward early TV of "radio with pictures."
https://bill37mccurdy.com/2010/08/20/early-tv-was-like-radio-with-pictures/
In the technical sense, TV is and always has been radio with pictures, ... (more) |
— | over 1 year ago |
| Edit | Post #288754 | Initial revision | — | over 1 year ago |
| Question | — |
What is the term for a word that is an instance of itself? Some words are examples of the concept they name. Examples: "Word" is a word. "Noun" is a noun. "Eggcorn" is an eggcorn (a mistaken word that sounds like and has some connection to another word) for "acorn." "Mondegreen" is a mondegreen; the word comes from mishearing the song line "laid hi... (more) |
— | over 1 year ago |
| Comment | Post #286640 |
Yes, I made an error. Responses here on Codidact are often sparse, and I wanted to contribute something. I read your post; it would have been a remarkable coincidence for me to cite the same Etymonline item for a post I hadn't even read. I read it carelessly. So you decided to be rude about it. That ... (more) |
— | about 2 years ago |
| Edit | Post #286653 |
Post edited: |
— | over 2 years ago |
| Edit | Post #286653 | Initial revision | — | over 2 years ago |
| Question | — |
Why does German use the third person plural for the second person polite? German has three sets of pronouns for the second person: the familiar singular (du), the familiar plural (ihr), and the polite singular or plural (Sie). The polite form is identical with the third person plural, except that the pronouns are capitalized. It's different from the third person feminine s... (more) |
— | over 2 years ago |
| Edit | Post #286640 | Initial revision | — | over 2 years ago |
| Answer | — |
A: How did 'to wit' shift (from "to know") 🡺 to mean 'that is to say'? Etymology Online suggests: > The phrase to wit, almost the only surviving use of the verb, is first recorded 1570s, from earlier that is to wit (mid-14c.), probably a loan-translation of Anglo-French cestasavoir, used to render Latin videlicet (see viz.). (more) |
— | over 2 years ago |
| Comment | Post #286610 |
In every case I can think of, one language dominates locally. However, I'm far from an expert in this area, which is why I wrote a comment rather than an answer. Maybe you'd find such bilingualism in areas close to national borders, especially ones that have shifted recently. (more) |
— | over 2 years ago |
| Edit | Post #286623 |
Post edited: |
— | over 2 years ago |
| Edit | Post #286624 | Initial revision | — | over 2 years ago |
| Answer | — |
A: How can "in terms of" alone encompass — and substitute — multiple prepositions "at, by, as, or for"? There's a discussion of how "in terms of" came to mean "regarding" on the Grammarphobia Blog. The article suggests: "Perhaps it strikes people as more scholarly or scientific than the alternatives." It goes on: > The nontechnical meaning of “in terms of” emerged in the early 19th century. It’s de... (more) |
— | over 2 years ago |
| Edit | Post #286623 | Initial revision | — | over 2 years ago |
| Answer | — |
A: Why "me too" and not "I too"? English tends to use accusative pronouns whenever they aren't clearly the subject of a sentence or clause, even when classical grammatical rules call for the nominative. Another example: "Who's there?" "It's me." Classical grammar says it should be "It is I," but that sounds positively Shakespearean.... (more) |
— | over 2 years ago |
| Comment | Post #286610 |
There are countries with multiple official languages and significant speaking populations for each, but they tend to be divided regionally. Examples are Belgium (Flemish and French) and Switzerland (German, French, Italian, and Romansh). In any particular place, one language dominates. I don't know i... (more) |
— | over 2 years ago |
| Comment | Post #286040 |
A request for "devil's advocate" answers seems contrary to the spirit of this site. People come here for informed answers to questions, not to strained efforts to uphold a position that few would think of in the first place. The question might be stronger if it were revised to cite more instances of ... (more) |
— | over 2 years ago |
| Edit | Post #286591 | Initial revision | — | over 2 years ago |
| Question | — |
Why is "djinn" the plural of "djinni"? Most reliable sources say that the Arabic-derived "djinni" is a singular word and its plural is "djinn." (Or "jinni" and "jinn," if you prefer.) The dropping of a final letter or syllable to pluralize is counterintuitive to people familiar mainly with European languages. Could someone explain how thi... (more) |
— | over 2 years ago |
| Edit | Post #286173 |
Post edited: |
— | over 2 years ago |
| Comment | Post #286201 |
Some people here hold the view that the only legitimate questions are ones for which no answers can previously be found on the Internet. This isn't the first time someone has complained that the answer could be found using Google.
If we allowed only questions on which there's no previously publish... (more) |
— | over 2 years ago |
| Edit | Post #286173 | Initial revision | — | over 2 years ago |
| Answer | — |
A: What's the difference between "in doing so" and "by doing so"? It depends on the context, but generally "in doing so" refers to something that happens along with or as part of the action, and "by doing so" refers to a result of the action. In many cases either one works. Here are a couple of cases where one is preferable to the other: - Japan bombed Pearl Har... (more) |
— | over 2 years ago |
| Comment | Post #284914 |
The discussion in Etymonline supports this line of reasoning.
https://www.etymonline.com/search?q=invest (more) |
— | almost 3 years ago |
| Edit | Post #285711 |
Post edited: |
— | almost 3 years ago |
| Edit | Post #285711 | Initial revision | — | almost 3 years ago |
| Question | — |
Why did the letter K survive in Latin, though it was rarely used? In classical Latin, the letter C is pronounced like K. Hardly any words use the latter K; even imports from Greek turned kappa into C. A handful of words, such as "kalendae," held onto their K. In general, classical Latin avoided superfluous letters. There was no distinction between I and J, or be... (more) |
— | almost 3 years ago |
| Comment | Post #285572 |
Certain suffixes indicate a likely French origin, including -tion, -ence, -ance, -ic, and -ian. However, many English words have been coined in imitation of words with these endings, and others may be post-Norman imports, so it's not a sure guide. (more) |
— | almost 3 years ago |
| Comment | Post #285356 |
In which language did the meaning shift? Literally, a maniac is a dangerously insane person. In English, it has taken on a figurative, often humorous secondary meaning, suggesting nothing worse than excessive interest or devotion to something. If the word is always used in the original sense in Hebre... (more) |
— | almost 3 years ago |
| Edit | Post #284296 | Initial revision | — | about 3 years ago |
| Question | — |
How to deal with questions on English grammar and usage Languages & Linguistics has been getting some questions about relatively basic issues in the English language. There's nothing wrong with these questions as such, but they don't really fit the main purpose. Would it be worthwhile to create a new community for "English Language"? We could talk about d... (more) |
— | about 3 years ago |
| Edit | Post #284295 | Initial revision | — | about 3 years ago |
| Answer | — |
A: Which phrase is correct? (Is using plural form for singular object make sense?) (Does using plural form for singular object make sense?) The verb "do" is generally used for asking a question. Eliminating the extra words, the statement "It makes sense" turns into the question "Does it make sense?" "Is it make sense?" is grammatically incorrect. Referring to the past, you'd ask "Did it make sense?" You could use a form of "be" with "... (more) |
— | about 3 years ago |
| Comment | Post #284224 |
Giving the context helps. A search immediately turned up several versions of the article in question.
Much of this is basic vocabulary. A bill is a proposed piece of legislation before a legislative body. The bill in question is one to amend the constitution of Thailand, or rather to start the am... (more) |
— | about 3 years ago |
| Edit | Post #283907 | Initial revision | — | about 3 years ago |
| Answer | — |
A: What is the difference between a guild and a lodge? A guild is normally a craft or trade organization. "Lodge" has many meanings, but the relevant one is a local branch or meeting place of a fraternal organization. The situation with Freemasonry may be confusing because the Freemasons grew out of the guilds of stonemasons. Today they call their loc... (more) |
— | about 3 years ago |