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487 posts
 
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Q&A How do Latin etymons that end in English in *-tion* nearly always name a process?

I don't think the emboldening is correct, because -ing gerunds name a process. See https://english.stackexchange.com/a/444498. -tion just names a result of that process. What do you think?      ...

0 answers  ·  posted 3y ago by PSTH‭

Question Latin
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Q&A How does "happening" appertain to "(be)falling"?

I don't understand why English and Latin (see the two quotations below) uses the notion of "(be)fall" to signify "happening". How are they related semantically? accident [14] Etymologically, an...

1 answer  ·  posted 3y ago by PSTH‭  ·  last activity 3y ago by PSTH‭

Question etymology
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Q&A How does the semantic notion of “in defiance of” signify “notwithstanding”?

The semantic notion of “in defiance of” feels unrelated to “notwithstanding”! What underlies or relates these semantic notions? This question appertains to all languages that founds this conjuncti...

0 answers  ·  posted 3y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 2y ago by PSTH‭

Question etymology
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Meta Styling language tags

Languages already stand out more because they just got capitalized. However, I like the idea to make them stand out even more. There are two good ways to do it: topic tags and required tags. Top...

posted 4y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

Answer
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Q&A What semantic notions underlie 'privity' with 'privity of contract'?

The OED 3 ed, June 2007 defines b. privity of contract n. the limitation of a contractual relationship to the two parties making the contract, which prevents any action at law by an interested...

0 answers  ·  posted 4y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 4y ago by Moshi‭

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Meta Split off Linguistics into a site category?

So to be honest, I have basically zero interest in any of the etymology, language usage, or language learning questions here. I'm here for the linguistics questions. And there's really not a lot of...

4 answers  ·  posted 4y ago by curiousdannii‭  ·  last activity 4y ago by Moshi‭

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Q&A What's the difference between "in doing so" and "by doing so"?

The phrase "in doing so" implies that the action happens naturally as a consequence of the prior action, whereas "by doing so" suggests that the action is intentional to achieve a specific result.

posted 8d ago by suwaidionline‭

Answer
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Q&A What underlying principle is at play for how objective or subjective a natural language instruction is?

The underlying principle is the level of specificity in the natural language instruction. Objective instructions are clear, measurable, and precise, while subjective instructions often involve pers...

posted 1d ago by suwaidionline‭

Answer
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Q&A How does 'counting' relate to ‘course of business dealings requiring records’, ‘arrangement to keep money in a business, bank, etc.’?

I saw this at https://english.stackexchange.com/q/624915, but it got closed without answer. I would like answers, thx. Etymonline commences with c. 1300, "counting," especially "reckoning of money...

0 answers  ·  posted 3mo ago by Nen‭  ·  edited 3mo ago by Nen‭

Question accounting
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Q&A What causes people to write compound words as distinct words?

Compound words are notoriously difficult for people to write correctly, even in the simpler and more systematic cases involving two nouns. While the influence of English is often blamed for this pr...

posted 2y ago by GoldenGold‭

Answer
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Q&A How can "in terms of" alone encompass — and substitute — multiple prepositions "at, by, as, or for"?

in terms of. This phrase is commonly used as a substitute for a precise identification of relationship or as a substitute for such prepositions as at, by, as, or for. The phrase is correctly used...

1 answer  ·  posted 3y ago by PSTH‭  ·  last activity 2y ago by gmcgath‭

Question English semantics
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Q&A How did syn + ek + dekhesthai compound to signify 'synecdoche' (a figure of speech in which a part is used for the whole)?

How do syn, ex-, dekhesthai appertain to the Modern English definition of synecdoche? I am baffled, because all 3 Greek morphemes appear UNRELATED to this literary term. 'synecdoche' doesn't ...

0 answers  ·  posted 3y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 1y ago by PSTH‭

Question etymology Greek
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Q&A What causes people to write compound words as distinct words?

Different style guides and dictionaries may have varying rules for specific compounds, which can lead to confusion and inconsistency. For instance,might be used interchangeably in different context...

posted 3mo ago by deleted user

Answer
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Q&A How does concernō relate to ‘commercial enterprise' ?

"concern" is quite old English for an establishment or business of some kind.“ How did this business meaning of concern develop from the Latin concernō that meant “to mix, sift or mingle toge...

0 answers  ·  posted 3mo ago by Nen‭

Question Latin
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Q&A Is Tamil an old language? [closed]

Yes, Tamil is one of the oldest languages in the world. It has a rich history that dates back over 2,000 years, with ancient literature and inscriptions found from as early as the 3rd century BCE. ...

0 answers  ·  posted 3mo ago by deleted user  ·  closed 3mo ago by Moshi‭

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Q&A What's the difference between "in doing so" and "by doing so"?

Focuses more on the method or means by which something is achieved. It highlights the action taken as the method for achieving a particular result. For example: "You can improve your health by exer...

posted 3mo ago by suwaidionline‭

Answer
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Q&A What semantic notions underlie 'to advise, counsel, guess' (rǣda) 🡺 'peruse' (read)?

How did ‘advise, consult, guess’ semantically shift 🢂 to signify ‘interpret, interpret letters, read’? How do they semantically appertain? read [OE] In most western European languages, the wor...

0 answers  ·  posted 2y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 2y ago by PSTH‭

Question etymology
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Q&A How did 'rendre' semantically shift from meaning 'give back' to 🡺 1. 'make, cause to be' 🡲 2. 'represent, depict'?

What semantic notions underlie "give back" with 🢂 "make[,] or cause to be in a certain state"? 🡪 "represent, depict"? render (v.) [on Etymonline] late 14c., rendren, rendre, "repe...

0 answers  ·  posted 2y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 2y ago by PSTH‭

Question etymology
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Q&A If assūmptiō = 'take up', then can ad- (prefix) = 'up'? But why, when super- = 'up'?

Are these definitions correct? Even though p. 262 below (bottom scan) doesn't list "take up" as a meaning of assūmptiō? (13th, from Latin assūmptiō, the act of taking up, from Latin assūmere...

1 answer  ·  posted 2y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 2y ago by PSTH‭

Question Latin
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Q&A What semantic notions underlie "inmost, innermost" (intimus) 🡲 with "make known, announce" (intimo)?

How did intimus "inmost, innermost, deepest" (adj.) semantically shift to 🡺 intimare "make known, announce, impress" ? These meanings are polar opposites! If something is inmost, then it's private...

0 answers  ·  posted 2y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 2y ago by PSTH‭

Question Latin
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Q&A How did commeātus semantically shift from meaning "passage" 🢂 to "leave of absence"?

What semantic notions underlie meaning 1 ("The act of coming and going") 🡺 with 5 ("Leave of absence)? Please fill in the gaps, and show the steps, between meanings 1-4 and 5? The Oxford Latin Dict...

0 answers  ·  posted 2y ago by PSTH‭

Question etymology Latin
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Q&A How did "dispose" semantically shift from meaning "put apart" 🡺 to "transfer title to property"?

What semantic notions underlie "put apart" 🡺 "a transfer of title to property"? This semantic shift addles me. Why? Because "put apart" feels casual and laid-back! In modern English, "put apart" r...

0 answers  ·  posted 2y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 2y ago by PSTH‭

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Q&A Demise — How did "dismiss, put away" semantically shift to mean 🡲 a transfer of property, or the grant of a lease?

What semantic notions underlie "dismiss, put away" (desmetre) 🢂 with transferring property or granting a lease (demise)? This semantic shift befuddles me, because — Humans "dismiss, put away"...

1 answer  ·  posted 2y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 2y ago by PSTH‭

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Q&A How did mittō (to send) semantically shift 🢂 in Vulgar Latin 🡺 to mean "put"?

Wiktionary allegates that, for the Latin mittō (“to send”), The semantic shift from "send" to "put" probably occurred in Vulgar Latin. What semantic notions underlie "send" and "put"? I can'...

0 answers  ·  posted 2y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 2y ago by PSTH‭

Question etymology Latin
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Q&A How did (the cross-linguistic univerbation) 'nothing/not/none/no + less' semantically shift to mean 'despite'?

Several West European languages, most spoken in 2022, feature cognate adverbs with the meaning of ''nevertheless' by univerbating "nothing/not/none/no" +"less". What semantic notions underlie...

0 answers  ·  posted 2y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 2y ago by PSTH‭

Question etymology