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Q&A Is "pervalue" an antonym of "devalue"?

Devalue is commonly used to mean diminish value. Seems like the prefix re- is sometimes used with opposite effect to de-, as in reinforce meaning to increase force or refried meaning more fried. ...

0 answers  ·  posted 1y ago by matthewsnyder‭

Question English prefix
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Meta Should translation questions be considered off-topic?

Asking for translations is a common and normal technique that novice language students use to learn their language of choice. This allows them to connect and transfer some of their existing languag...

posted 1y ago by matthewsnyder‭

Answer
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Q&A Which spelling -if any- of ar-Rahmaan is more correct "الرحمن" or "الرحمان"?

I have a very little knowledge about Arabic but as far as I know, both spellings are correct and acceptable. Use whichever you want but be consistent. The short vertical stroke on top of meem is ca...

posted 4y ago by nobodyImportant‭

Answer
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Resources Spanish dictionaries

posted 4y ago by fedorqui‭  ·  edited 4y ago by fedorqui‭

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Q&A Why do only certain letters have an ending form in Hebrew? [duplicate]

There's a list of certain letters in Hebrew that have a different form if they're at the end of a word - much like capital letters at the beginning of a sentence in English, but only for specific l...

0 answers  ·  posted 4y ago by Mithical‭  ·  edited 3y ago by msh210‭

Question Hebrew
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Q&A How did 'consideration' shift to signify grounds and the act of deliberation, then inducer of a grant or promise?

        The name of Consideration appears only about the beginning of the sixteenth century, and we do not know by what steps it became a settled term of art. The word seems to have gone throug...

1 answer  ·  posted 4y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 3y ago by PSTH‭

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Meta Split off Linguistics into a site category?

This is one of four (or more) alternative answers. (I am posting the alternatives separately and simultaneously to allow separate voting and commenting. They represent elaborations of potential c...

posted 4y ago by Jirka Hanika‭  ·  edited 4y ago by Moshi‭

Answer
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Q&A What should I use instead of `have` in present perfect tense?

As we know have is verb and auxiliary also. What should I say when I have to use have in present perfect tense (sentence). Usually, what came to my mind that is Have you have it? (completely wro...

1 answer  ·  posted 3y ago by deleted user  ·  last activity 3y ago by Cereal Nommer‭

Question English grammar
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Meta Split off Linguistics into a site category?

This is one of four (or more) alternative answers. (I am posting the alternatives separately and simultaneously to allow separate voting and commenting. They represent elaborations of potential c...

posted 4y ago by Jirka Hanika‭  ·  edited 4y ago by Moshi‭

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Q&A How did 'equity' semantically shift to mean 'Assets — Liabilities'?

I ask about Equity = Assets — Liabilities here, not its meaning as stock. See Personal Finance For Canadians For Dummies (2018), p 468. equity: In the real-estate world, this term refers to the...

1 answer  ·  posted 4y ago by PSTH‭  ·  last activity 4y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

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Meta Bug or license issue with imported post from SE?

As far as I can tell, the post was transfered manually, i.e. by copy and paste. While this is generally okay, you have to either add the neccessary attribution per CC BY-SA or state that you a...

posted 4y ago by luap42‭

Answer
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Q&A ~ません versus ~ないです

From Steve Wright on Quora, you can turn an entire phrase or sentence into a noun, and this has an unspoken effect, when suffixed with ~です, of adding up to the message, “I’m explaining this to you...

posted 4y ago by Razetime‭  ·  edited 4y ago by Razetime‭

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Q&A What is "these gentry" in Marxist writing?

In George Orwell's essay "Politics and the English Language", he refers to "[t]he jargon peculiar to Marxist writing (hyena, hangman, cannibal, petty bourgeois, these gentry, lackey, flunkey, mad d...

1 answer  ·  posted 4y ago by msh210‭  ·  last activity 4y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

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Q&A Effectiveness of input-only learning

My own experience has been that: You can definitely learn a lot by only listening/reading, never speaking You will still gain some ability to speak/write even though you never practice it It w...

posted 1y ago by matthewsnyder‭

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Meta Mixed fonts within a sentence (and proposed fixes)

Markdown doesn't work, but HTML does. The HTML source for the following is taken from the question ("preferred solution"): This is a sentence with 中文 characters 日本語が分かりません

posted 1y ago by Monica Cellio‭

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Q&A How can fulsome constitute "a case of ironic understatement"?

The quoted definition appears to answer your question already. An 300 ml cup of water is full if and only if it contains exactly 300 ml water. There's no mystery there, if you think of a cup the i...

posted 1y ago by matthewsnyder‭  ·  edited 1y ago by matthewsnyder‭

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Q&A Is there a freely available sentence patterns search engine?

Sketch Engine and COCA (Corpus of Contemporary American English) that allow users to search for sentence structures, patterns, and phrases across large text databases. These tools are great for lin...

posted 29d ago by suwaidionline‭

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Q&A Are Icelandic unstressed diphthongs in loanwords supposed to be reduced?

A peculiar feature of Icelandic is that it distinguishes vowel length, not just for pure vowels, but also for diphthongs. (Vowel length does not distinguish meaning, or at least not directly; it i...

posted 26d ago by Jirka Hanika‭

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Q&A How did 'less than' semantically shift to mean 'if not'?

Some cultures use "less" as a direct alternative to "minus," making it (in effect) a synonym of "except" or "without:" Five less two is three. It is not a wild stretch to imagine that these constr...

posted 4mo ago by Michael‭

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Q&A How does taking, buying, procuring (emō) semantically appertain to destruction, annihilation (perimō)?

As you can read below, emō meant to take, buy, gain, procure. But perimō meant to destroy and annihilate. Plainly, their meanings differ! So why was perimō formed from emō and compounded with per-?...

1 answer  ·  posted 3y ago by PSTH‭  ·  last activity 3y ago by PSTH‭

Question etymology Latin
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Q&A Demise — How did "dismiss, put away" semantically shift to mean 🡲 a transfer of property, or the grant of a lease?

Remember that lawyers love to put their own stamp on language, and hold on to fanciful usages while pretending they are the clearest, most common parlance. https://dictionary.thelaw.com/demise/ is...

posted 2y ago by dsr‭

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Q&A What semantic notions underlie "pull, drag" (in tractō) 🡒 "negotiate, bargain" (in 'treat')?

I revamped Serious-Telephone142's answer for grammar. Negotiation involves a metaphorical pushing and pulling, a give and take. This sense is preserved in the modern English word 'intractable,' ...

posted 3y ago by PSTH‭

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Q&A Modern English words originating in Norman

Where should I learn about words that came into Modern English most likely from Norman? Please example some words which most likely came to Modern English only from Norman (i.e. words which are li...

1 answer  ·  posted 3y ago by deleted user  ·  last activity 3y ago by dsr‭

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Q&A Why did linguists choose 'Patient' (noun) to denote this Thematic Role?

        THEMES and PATIENTS are rather similar, and not all linguists distinguish between these roles. A THEME typically moves from one location or one person to another, like the letter in (31...

1 answer  ·  posted 3y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 3y ago by Keelan‭

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Q&A How did 'to wit' shift (from "to know") 🡺 to mean 'that is to say'?

Etymology Online suggests: The phrase to wit, almost the only surviving use of the verb, is first recorded 1570s, from earlier that is to wit (mid-14c.), probably a loan-translation of Anglo-Fre...

posted 2y ago by gmcgath‭

Answer