Activity for Jirka Hanika
| Type | On... | Excerpt | Status | Date |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Comment | Post #289306 |
That's a lot of nice examples. I'd tend to label those in boldface as a mix of "showing power differential" (most of them) and "showing intimacy" (the Laura one), whereas those in italics as "showing politeness".
I think that social connections (and their signals) are not necessarily classified a... (more) |
— | over 1 year ago |
| Comment | Post #288998 |
Microsoft released Bengali Windows. It uses Bengali equivalents to various computer terminology. As it happens in every language, those terms are often derived (as metaphors and otherwise) from Bengali concepts and terms that predate computer technology; . (The origin of a particular word or phras... (more) |
— | over 1 year ago |
| Comment | Post #288998 |
It is unclear what is being asked due to too many layers of perceived or real humor involved.
Those terms appear to mean, in this context, what already the question suggests that they mean. In other contexts, they may mean also different things, but that doesn't "define" those terms. (more) |
— | over 1 year ago |
| Edit | Post #288998 | Question closed | — | over 1 year ago |
| Comment | Post #288413 |
Tudor-ætt would be the base form (nominative, without an article. Tudors are foreign to Iceland and they have a family name (Tudor, I suppose). Tudor-ætt is derived from that family name. (more) |
— | almost 2 years ago |
| Comment | Post #288760 |
[Another wikipedia page](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Self-reference#:~:text=A%20word%20that%20describes%20itself,autological%20word%20(or%20autonym).) presents "autonym" as a synonym for an autological word. However, no reference for that claim is given, which contradicts wikipedia policy. (more) |
— | almost 2 years ago |
| Comment | Post #288538 |
The question could be improved with some (ideally, dated) examples of the original usage if available. That's because the holdover from radio may have been rather distinct from specialized phraseology such as "hear on TV" (meaning, memorizing a factoid that arrived through the TV) that's still entir... (more) |
— | almost 2 years ago |
| Comment | Post #288413 |
Some Icelanders do have a family name. It is possible for Icelanders born to such a family to inherit the family name (i.e., as a family name, in a surname position, and not as a mere middle name). Before the law changed in 1925, all it took for the extended family who wanted to be easy to referenc... (more) |
— | almost 2 years ago |
| Edit | Post #288468 | Initial revision | — | almost 2 years ago |
| Answer | — |
A: Has there ever been a situation of perfect bilingualism, without falling in diglossia? The term "multiligualism" is generally used to characterize the linguistic capabilities of a single speaker. If the person uses exactly two (or at least two) languages, they are bilinguial even if no one else in the world is bilinguial. The term "diglossia" is a socio-linguistic term, it is used ... (more) |
— | almost 2 years ago |
| Edit | Post #288413 |
Post edited: Adding more context on second given names and on middle names and correcting the base form of name I used in an example |
— | almost 2 years ago |
| Edit | Post #288413 | Initial revision | — | almost 2 years ago |
| Answer | — |
A: How to refer to a whole family in Icelandic? In Icelandic, you are, I suppose, more likely to refer to a single person and their family, than to the family without naming any single person as well. Random example from the web: "Fjölskylda Einars Darra Óskarssonar heimsótti mig í forsætisráðuneytið í dag." ("The family of Einar Darri[^1], son ... (more) |
— | almost 2 years ago |
| Edit | Post #288182 | Initial revision | — | almost 2 years ago |
| Answer | — |
A: Effectiveness of input-only learning This question touches on many topics, and this answer doesn't hope to be comprehensive. Research on language didactics generally focusses on institutional settings (with an instructor), or, at the very least, on the learner following a defined method, such as a widely used set of learning material... (more) |
— | almost 2 years ago |
| Comment | Post #288158 |
Yes, that's exactly what I meant. (more) |
— | almost 2 years ago |
| Comment | Post #288158 |
The example I gave was mine, not necessarily Krashen's.
Krashen distinguishes conscious "learning" and subconscious "acquisition". Both are important. You need a certain level of acquisition before you can successfully proceed to a certain step of learning. But both proceed in a lockstep. Ther... (more) |
— | almost 2 years ago |
| Comment | Post #288158 |
Krashen certainly never posited anything as radical as a recommendation not to produce.
He believes that you can't speed up (or even reorder) language learning by trying to consciously learn to produce on a level that's TOO FAR AHEAD of what you have already subconsciously acquired through previ... (more) |
— | almost 2 years ago |
| Comment | Post #287281 |
@#60658 -
https://people.howstuffworks.com/shrewdness-apes-collective-nouns-500-year-old-language-fad.htm
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Book_of_Saint_Albans (Certainly not earliest nor too original, but enormously influential in the spread of the joke throughout the English speaking world.)
G... (more) |
— | almost 2 years ago |
| Comment | Post #287759 |
The very term "the inflectional suffix" (and especially it's synonym "ending") presupposes that the language is purely fusional - that all grammatical categories are expressed through a single ending located at the very end of the word which cannot be decomposed into morphemes for the individual cate... (more) |
— | about 2 years ago |
| Comment | Post #287759 |
Weak verbs have the additional dental consonant in their past forms (which is sometimes presupposed to have originated in a cognate of the auxiliary verb "to do"). That dental consonant is usually analyzed as part of their ending, not of the stem, following a dogmatic assumption that German is a pur... (more) |
— | about 2 years ago |
| Edit | Post #287759 | Initial revision | — | about 2 years ago |
| Answer | — |
A: Why is the third person singular conjugation different in the past tense? Your question is about a particular subclass of German verbs, namely weak verbs. Weak verbs, along with their conjugation, are a Proto-Germanic invention. Proto-Germanic isn't an attested language itself, but every attested Germanic languages contains some reflection of the original Präteritum mark... (more) |
— | about 2 years ago |
| Edit | Post #287542 | Initial revision | — | over 2 years ago |
| Answer | — |
A: When would a sentence consist of "terdiri" with "atas" or "dari"? The same thing can be expressed in any given language in many ways. You have not provided any source for the claim that "Kecamatan ini terdiri atas sepuluh desa." would be using the wrong word. This page contains the sentence: "Kecamatan ini terdiri atas satu kelurahan dan beberapa desa." That ... (more) |
— | over 2 years ago |
| Comment | Post #287060 |
Re *"Depending on the starting letter of the base verb, "me-" would get an additional letter/s and said starting letter will be dropped off of the verb to make the word."* - a good way to interpret this process is to think of the prefix as being not just "me-", but rather "meM-" where the "M" is not ... (more) |
— | over 2 years ago |
| Comment | Post #287281 |
I agree that American English (as well as Australian English) normally uses singular verb agreement with company names while British English uses plural verb agreement. The Australian adherence to singular usage is a strict one, the American one isn't universal, especially if neilpzz is indeed an Am... (more) |
— | over 2 years ago |
| Comment | Post #287281 |
Source: That first example sentence was uttered by neilpzz and is googlable. neilpzz is a Windows Insider program participant who seems to be expressing themselves in (U.S.?) English and posting, over the last 7 years, in times of day consistent with living in the Western Hemisphere.
The second e... (more) |
— | over 2 years ago |
| Edit | Post #287281 | Initial revision | — | over 2 years ago |
| Answer | — |
A: Plural agreement with a syntactically singular subject In your example, "lot", bunch", "amount", are collective nouns. There are many collective nouns that aren't quantifiers. For example: "Microsoft have never said they have extended the free period." or "The team agreed." Collective nouns that denote various groupings of animals appear to have st... (more) |
— | over 2 years ago |
| Edit | Post #286913 | Initial revision | — | over 2 years ago |
| Answer | — |
A: What does Etymonline mean by 'to raise (someone) out of trouble'? You are right, "raise (someone) out of trouble" is not a common English idiom. It is used to connect the English meaning (denotation and connotations) to the original Latin and/or Old French meanings (denotation and connotation). The bolded phrase is an explanation of a notion operating in Latin,... (more) |
— | over 2 years ago |
| Comment | Post #286840 |
I just checked, as a random sample, Luke 24:51 in Vulgate (the most popular Latin translation I'm aware of) and its counterpart of the English "take up" isn't any cognate of "assumption"; there's *"et factum est dum benediceret illis recessit ab eis et ferebatur in caelum"*, so similarly to Greek the... (more) |
— | over 2 years ago |
| Comment | Post #286840 |
Well, you may well be right and I wrong about this. Undoubtedly, some uses of "take up" are spatial (*"Take up the carpet."*), others are not ("*He took up basket weaving* [as a hobby].")
Is heaven a place - literally? metaphorically? If it is, does it lie in the same direction as the sky? ("S... (more) |
— | over 2 years ago |
| Edit | Post #286840 |
Post edited: typo correction |
— | over 2 years ago |
| Edit | Post #286840 | Initial revision | — | over 2 years ago |
| Answer | — |
A: If assūmptiō = 'take up', then can ad- (prefix) = 'up'? But why, when super- = 'up'? Indo-European spatial prepositions, when analyzed across all attested languages, are rich in beautiful, unexpected relationships[^1]. You could think that the spatial relationships (above, below, beside, etc.) are independent of the language studied, but that is not so. Like everything in languag... (more) |
— | over 2 years ago |
| Comment | Post #286733 |
It's certainly interesting to look at other languages, too. (more) |
— | over 2 years ago |
| Comment | Post #286733 |
That article doesn't seem to be covering German with any examples or timelines, does it? In German, ihrzen was way older than siezen. (The oldest known instance of ihrzen is from 865. Some dialects use ihrzen even today.) The early written examples of siezen are mixing siezen and ihrzen (by the s... (more) |
— | over 2 years ago |
| Comment | Post #279490 |
Oh yes, it did. The English word wasn't borrowed from modern French, it was rather borrowed from Old French. The word "partir" is intransitive in modern French ("depart") but primarily [transitive](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Transitive_verb) in Old French ("distribute", i.e., "make depart").
... (more) |
— | over 2 years ago |
| Comment | Post #284296 |
It seems to me that even after nine more years we haven't grown (in the volume of traffic) to the point where it would be clear that any particular splitting or excluding would be likely to produce lively, compact, more focused communities.
There's no objective, easy to check boundary between "lan... (more) |
— | over 2 years ago |
| Edit | Post #286658 |
Post edited: |
— | almost 3 years ago |
| Edit | Post #286658 |
Post edited: |
— | almost 3 years ago |
| Edit | Post #286658 |
Post edited: |
— | almost 3 years ago |
| Edit | Post #286658 | Initial revision | — | almost 3 years ago |
| Answer | — |
A: Why does German use the third person plural for the second person polite? It is tempting for a foreigner, but perhaps not accurate to identify "Sie" as the polite (respectful) pronoun and to identify "du" as the impolite (less respectful) one, and it could be more accurate to describe the distinction as one of distance[^1] ("Sie" indicates a more distant relationship than ... (more) |
— | almost 3 years ago |
| Comment | Post #286623 |
This example does prove that there's a change in progress. A nice write-up on the predicative nominal case is [here](https://www.merriam-webster.com/words-at-play/it-is-i-or-it-is-me-predicate-nominative-usage-guide). They even suggest a timeline of the change.
Note also that we are using the ... (more) |
— | almost 3 years ago |
| Edit | Post #286619 | Initial revision | — | almost 3 years ago |
| Answer | — |
A: How can fulsome constitute "a case of ironic understatement"? Any understatement could be unintentional, or it could be motivated by pragmatic reasons such as hesitation to bring up a controversial point. However, more often than not, blatant or ridiculously formed understatements are used ironically; and the irony very often concerns the understated quant... (more) |
— | almost 3 years ago |
| Edit | Post #286601 | Initial revision | — | almost 3 years ago |