Communities

Writing
Writing
Codidact Meta
Codidact Meta
The Great Outdoors
The Great Outdoors
Photography & Video
Photography & Video
Scientific Speculation
Scientific Speculation
Cooking
Cooking
Electrical Engineering
Electrical Engineering
Judaism
Judaism
Languages & Linguistics
Languages & Linguistics
Software Development
Software Development
Mathematics
Mathematics
Christianity
Christianity
Code Golf
Code Golf
Music
Music
Physics
Physics
Linux Systems
Linux Systems
Power Users
Power Users
Tabletop RPGs
Tabletop RPGs
Community Proposals
Community Proposals
tag:snake search within a tag
answers:0 unanswered questions
user:xxxx search by author id
score:0.5 posts with 0.5+ score
"snake oil" exact phrase
votes:4 posts with 4+ votes
created:<1w created < 1 week ago
post_type:xxxx type of post
Search help
Notifications
Mark all as read See all your notifications »
Q&A

General Q&A about specific languages, language in general, and linguistics.

Filters (None)
75%
+4 −0
Why is the word "maniac" considered such a strong insult in Hebrew?

When I first moved to Israel, one of the first things I was warned about was using the word "maniac". As an American, this is considered a very minor insult - minor enough for little kids to use wi...

0 answers  ·  posted 4y ago by Mithical‭

Hebrew
80%
+6 −0
Swedish verbs with the meaning of mixing

I do a research on Swedish verbs with the meaning of mixing something. I struggle with some of words. There are two words 'blanda' and 'röra' which are usually used with prepositions, like 'om', 'i...

1 answer  ·  posted 5y ago by Supermiledi‭  ·  last activity 5y ago by Lundin‭

vocabulary Swedish semantics
33%
+0 −2
Why does the Latin prefix 'in-' also mean the English 'to', when Latin 'ad-' already means 'to'?

I quote Etymonline on impute (v.): early 15c., from Old French imputer, emputer (14c.) and directly from Latin imputare "to reckon, make account of, charge, ascribe," from assimilated form of ...

0 answers  ·  posted 5y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 5y ago by PSTH‭

Latin
40%
+0 −1
How can the Latin prefix 'in-' possibly befit imputare?

I quote Etymonline on impute (v.): early 15c., from Old French imputer, emputer (14c.) and directly from Latin imputare "to reckon, make account of, charge, ascribe," from assimilated form of ...

0 answers  ·  posted 5y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 5y ago by PSTH‭

etymology Latin
83%
+8 −0
Does Japanese have pronouns?

It is often said that Japanese doesn't really have a pronoun word class, such as in the Wikipedia article on Japanese Grammar: Although many grammars and textbooks mention pronouns (代名詞 daimeish...

1 answer  ·  posted 6y ago by curiousdannii‭  ·  last activity 5y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

pronouns typology
50%
+1 −1
How does taking, buying, procuring (emō) semantically appertain to destruction, annihilation (perimō)?

As you can read below, emō meant to take, buy, gain, procure. But perimō meant to destroy and annihilate. Plainly, their meanings differ! So why was perimō formed from emō and compounded with per-?...

1 answer  ·  posted 5y ago by PSTH‭  ·  last activity 5y ago by PSTH‭

etymology Latin
33%
+0 −2
How does "happening" appertain to "(be)falling"?

I don't understand why English and Latin (see the two quotations below) uses the notion of "(be)fall" to signify "happening". How are they related semantically? accident [14] Etymologically, an...

1 answer  ·  posted 5y ago by PSTH‭  ·  last activity 5y ago by PSTH‭

etymology
40%
+0 −1
How does saeculum ( “generation” or “lifetime") semantically relate to PIE root *se- "to sow"?

Why did historical linguists impute saeculum to PIE *se-? What semantic notions underlie them? All boldenings are mine. secular (adj) c. 1300, "living in the world, not belonging to a religious...

1 answer  ·  posted 5y ago by PSTH‭  ·  last activity 5y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

etymology Latin
40%
+0 −1
How does propitius (“favorable, well-disposed") semantically relate to PIE root *per- (1) "forward")?

Why did historical linguists impute propitius to PIE *per-1? What semantic notions underlie them? All boldenings are mine. propitiation (n.) late 14c., propiciacioun, "atonement, expiation," fr...

0 answers  ·  posted 5y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 5y ago by PSTH‭

etymology Proto-Indo-European
60%
+1 −0
Resources for a speaker of Modern Hebrew to learn Biblical Hebrew?

Re-asking a question I answered elsewhere: As a speaker of modern Hebrew I[1], I can tell that some things have changed since the Hebrew of the bible -- some words I think I know just don't make s...

1 answer  ·  posted 5y ago by Monica Cellio‭  ·  last activity 5y ago by Monica Cellio‭

Hebrew
57%
+2 −1
How did 'consideration' shift to signify grounds and the act of deliberation, then inducer of a grant or promise?

        The name of Consideration appears only about the beginning of the sixteenth century, and we do not know by what steps it became a settled term of art. The word seems to have gone throug...

1 answer  ·  posted 6y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 5y ago by PSTH‭

etymology particular-word
50%
+0 −0
How did 'style' signify names of court cases?

Can you please expatiate on ohwilleke's answer? She asseverated My suspicion is that the Latin/French word for a writing instrument ends up being used for the act of using a writing instrument t...

0 answers  ·  posted 5y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 5y ago by PSTH‭

etymology legal-language
50%
+0 −0
How did 'unless' evolve to mean 'if not'?

[Etymonline:] mid-15c., earlier onlesse, from on lesse (than) "on a less condition (than); see less. The first syllable originally on, but the negative connotation and the lack of stress changed ...

0 answers  ·  posted 5y ago by PSTH‭

etymology
50%
+0 −0
Is the etymology of 'amphigory' semantically related to the English idiom 'go round in circles'?

Any semantic relationship between amphigory amphigory (n.) "burlesque nonsense writing or verse," 1809, from French amphigouri (18c.), which is of unknown origin, perhaps itself a nonsense word...

0 answers  ·  posted 5y ago by PSTH‭

etymology Greek
50%
+0 −0
How did 'equity' semantically broaden to mean 'common shares'?

I ask about its meaning merely for stocks here (not Equity = Assets — Liabilities). See Personal Finance For Canadians For Dummies (2018), p 217. Equity — not to be confused with equity in real ...

0 answers  ·  posted 5y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 5y ago by PSTH‭

etymology finance
66%
+2 −0
How did "bail" shift to signify "money deposited as a guarantee when released"?

I fail to understand this etymology for bail (n.1), particularly the first paragraph. [3.] "bond money, security given to obtain the release of a prisoner," late 15c., a sense that apparently de...

1 answer  ·  posted 5y ago by PSTH‭  ·  last activity 5y ago by Ullallulloo‭

etymology legal-language
40%
+0 −1
How did 'equity' semantically shift to signify 'Assets — Liabilities'?

Here I ask merely ask about Equity = Assets — Liabilities here, not its meaning as stock. 1. Why was 'equity' was adopted to describe this difference? equity: In the real-estate world, this ter...

0 answers  ·  posted 5y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 5y ago by PSTH‭

etymology
60%
+1 −0
How did « histoire », in « histoire de/que », semantically shift to signify "in order to/that"?

This French StackExchange post merely paraprhased "histoire de/que" as afin de / afin que, meaning pour / pour que — all this can be translated as "in order to/that" in English. But nobody in fact...

1 answer  ·  posted 5y ago by PSTH‭  ·  last activity 5y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

etymology French
50%
+0 −0
What is "Charter change bill" in English?

I have read this headline in a news website which think is being primarily written in Australian English: Government's charter change bill sails through 3rd reading How should this be underst...

1 answer  ·  posted 5y ago by deleted user  ·  last activity 5y ago by mcalex‭

English
50%
+1 −1
scilicet: How did 'it is permitted to know' semantically shift to signify 'that is to say, namely'?

How did signification 1 beneath semantically shift to 2? I'm befuddled by the relevant of licit, because what does "permitted" here signify? Why would a Roman require permission to know so...

1 answer  ·  posted 5y ago by PSTH‭  ·  last activity 5y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

Latin
75%
+4 −0
Which phrase is correct? (Is using plural form for singular object make sense?) (Does using plural form for singular object make sense?)

Replying to the last edit (#4)... Since it language related site hence I am asking the question by creating new Q rather than commenting there. The earlier title was Is using plural form for sin...

3 answers  ·  posted 5y ago by deleted user  ·  edited 5y ago by deleted user

English
66%
+4 −1
What language is this (cursive) sample?

A recent post on Language Log includes this sample of an unidentified language: The article says this about the source: This is from RG 84, General Correspondence of the American consulate in...

1 answer  ·  posted 5y ago by Monica Cellio‭  ·  last activity 5y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

identification language-identification
57%
+2 −1
What should I use instead of have in present perfect tense?

As we know have is verb and auxiliary also. What should I say when I have to use have in present perfect tense (sentence). Usually, what came to my mind that is Have you have it? (completely wro...

1 answer  ·  posted 5y ago by deleted user  ·  last activity 5y ago by Cereal Nommer‭

English grammar
66%
+2 −0
Does using plural form for singular object make sense?

Some people use they/them if they can't identity gender/sex (gender and sex isn't same). But when mentioning a single person should we use plural pronoun? We know that "they/them" is plural form. ...

2 answers  ·  posted 5y ago by deleted user  ·  edited 5y ago by Moshi‭

English pronouns
66%
+2 −0
What is the difference between a guild and a lodge?

What is the difference between a guild and a lodge? The context to this question is pretty much Freemasonry terminology but please feel free to answer with a general English context.

1 answer  ·  posted 5y ago by deleted user  ·  last activity 5y ago by gmcgath‭

English
42%
+1 −2
How did "re" + "join" semantically compound to mean "riposte"?

In French, « joindre » means "to join". What semantic notions underlie « joindre » with the 2020 English "rejoin", which means to riposte? How did rejoindre shift to signify the 2020 English "rej...

0 answers  ·  posted 6y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 5y ago by PSTH‭

etymology French particular-word
61%
+6 −3
How did “-able” semantically shift to mean “requiring”?

Etymonline on "-able" doesn't expound the origin of "requiring". -able common termination and word-forming element of English adjectives (typically based on verbs) and generally adding a notion...

2 answers  ·  posted 6y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 5y ago by PSTH‭

etymology English accounting
40%
+0 −1
How does "drive out" shift to signify "weigh out"?

I boldened the relevant parts of the quotations, so that you don't have to read all of the quotations. I'm untrained at metaphors! How did "drive out" develop the metaphor of "weigh out"? exact ...

0 answers  ·  posted 5y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 5y ago by PSTH‭

etymology Latin
66%
+2 −0
Linguistics of categorization

I think that in most languages, when people define sets of data in general and when people create taxonomy for website webpages in particular (webpage categorization), they would mostly name catego...

1 answer  ·  posted 5y ago by deleted user  ·  edited 5y ago by deleted user

plurality categorization nouns
33%
+0 −2
What's the semantic field of "putare"?

What SINGLE bigger picture and base meaning relates, bestrides, and underlies all 9 of putare's superficially UNrelated, but multitudinous, meanings below? Oxford Latin Dictionary (2012 2 ed), ...

0 answers  ·  posted 5y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 5y ago by PSTH‭

etymology Latin
40%
+0 −1
How did 'repraesentāre' semantically shift to signify 'standing in the place of another'?

To wit, how does "present again, bring back" (in repraesentāre) semantically appertain to the notion of 'standing in the place of another'? represent [14] English borrowed represent from Latin...

0 answers  ·  posted 5y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 5y ago by PSTH‭

etymology Latin
40%
+0 −1
How did 'folding back' semantically shift to mean 'reply'?

To wit, how does the notion of "folding back" semantically appertain to "respond"? reply [14] Etymologically, reply means ‘fold back’. It comes ultimately from Latin replicāre ‘fold back, unf...

0 answers  ·  posted 5y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 5y ago by PSTH‭

etymology Latin
40%
+0 −1
How's “drag” (tractāre) semantically related to “handle, deal with, discuss”?

How exactly did tractāre branch out "metaphorically to ‘handle, deal with, discuss’"? How does "dragging" semantically appertain to ‘handle, deal with, discuss’? Dragging connotes phy...

0 answers  ·  posted 5y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 5y ago by PSTH‭

etymology Latin
40%
+0 −1
How did 'in-' + 'putare' compound to mean 'to attribute, credit to'?

I quote Etymonline on impute (v.): early 15c., from Old French imputer, emputer (14c.) and directly from Latin imputare "to reckon, make account of, charge, ascribe," from assimilated form of ...

1 answer  ·  posted 5y ago by PSTH‭  ·  last activity 5y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

etymology Latin
50%
+0 −0
Human general communication languages with generally no plurality

I inquire about Languages or language families in which, in general / in flowing conversion there is no plural ; from a bit of read I understand that both Mandarin and Japanese are such language; t...

0 answers  ·  posted 5y ago by deleted user  ·  edited 5y ago by Moshi‭

list-of-languages plurality
66%
+2 −0
Malay languages or Indonesian languages --- which is more close to Philippine languages?

Malay languages or Indonesian languages --- which is more close to Philippine languages? I don't know much about any so I would not make any assumptions.

1 answer  ·  posted 5y ago by deleted user  ·  last activity 5y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

Malayo-Polynesian-languages
33%
+0 −2
Is there any country in South America in which Spanish and/or Portuguese aren't dominant (excluding the Caribbean's)? [closed]

Is there any country in South America in which Spanish and/or Portuguese aren't dominant? (excluding the Caribbean's but not excluding any other island around South America).

0 answers  ·  posted 5y ago by deleted user  ·  closed 5y ago by Moshi‭

American-English
66%
+2 −0
How to use the soft sign (Ь)?

I can read Russian, and the character that interests me most is Ь. In other words, the soft sign as it's called. I know other languages also has this but I got this from Russian so I'll focus on th...

0 answers  ·  posted 5y ago by General Sebast1an‭

pronunciation Russian letter
66%
+2 −0
How tan pronounced?

I noticed whenever I say tan it sounds like ten. I guess, it is not understandable all the time. So, how tan pronounced? I know little bit of phonetic. So, that will be OK for me also.

2 answers  ·  posted 5y ago by deleted user  ·  last activity 5y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

English pronunciation
50%
+0 −0
Is it correct to use Had I had it?

Past participle of have is had. I asked a question What should I use instead of have in present perfect tense?. I was recently thinking of past perfect. Had I had it? (While had is past particip...

0 answers  ·  posted 5y ago by deleted user

English
50%
+0 −0
What is "phoolon" in Hindi?

What does "phoolon" mean in Hindi? Google translate said that it means flower. But, I know that "ful" means flower. phoolon word is new to me. I guess, it is not usable nowadays,is it?

1 answer  ·  posted 5y ago by deleted user  ·  last activity 5y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

Hindi
60%
+1 −0
What does "po" mean in Filipino?

What does "po" mean in Filipino?

1 answer  ·  posted 5y ago by General Sebast1an‭  ·  last activity 5y ago by General Sebast1an‭

particular-word Filipino
50%
+0 −0
How does the original meaning of “but” (“outside”) relate to its current 2021 meanings?

How do the principal 2021 meanings of "but" relate, if any, to its original meaning of "outside"? E.g. how does "no more than; only" appertain to "outside"? CONJUNCTION Used to introduce ...

1 answer  ·  posted 5y ago by PSTH‭  ·  last activity 5y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

etymology
60%
+1 −0
Why didn't the same one (ancestor) language preponderate over China, Japan, Korea?

Don't hesitate to revise my post, particularly if you want to add maps. I'm basically extending this question on Reddit to Chinese. Unquestionably China, Korea, Japan are much closer to each other...

1 answer  ·  posted 5y ago by TextKit‭  ·  last activity 5y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

historical-linguistics
50%
+1 −1
A possible common confusion between electronic, digital and virtual

Over the years I have noticed a common confusion between the terms: Electronic Digital (something can be electronic but analogue instead of digital) Virtual (something can be defined as virtua...

0 answers  ·  posted 5y ago by deleted user  ·  edited 5y ago by Moshi‭

colloquial
50%
+0 −0
Why did David Ricardo coin "rent", to signify income from a factor of production that exceeds the minimum amount necessary (to beget that factor of production)?

At the time that Ricardo (1772-1823) coined "rent", did "rent" already signify Modern English's lay meaning of 'rent' (tenant's regular payment to a landlord for the use of property or land)? ...

0 answers  ·  posted 5y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 5y ago by Moshi‭

etymology English
71%
+3 −0
How did "as" amass all its confusing "broad and vague meanings"?

as. Do not use the conjunction as when you mean “since,” “because,” “when,” or “while.” Its broad and vague meanings can create confusion. For example, As a potential work stoppage threatened to ...

1 answer  ·  posted 5y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 5y ago by PSTH‭

etymology English particular-word
80%
+6 −0
What sound did the letter ℵ encode in ancient Hebrew, and why did it morph into the greek vowel Α?

Here are two claims I've often heard or read: The Hebrew language originally did not write down vowels. The Greek (and subsequently the Latin) alphabet developed from the Hebrew alphabet....

2 answers  ·  posted 5y ago by celtschk‭  ·  last activity 5y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

Hebrew historical-linguistics pronunciation Greek evolution-of-languages
50%
+0 −0
How did 'forfeit' shift to signify ‘penalty imposed for committing such a misdeed'?

I don't understand this semantic shift, because a misdeed differs from a penalty or "something to which the right is lost through a misdeed". Can someone please fill in the gap? forfeit [13] ...

1 answer  ·  posted 5y ago by PSTH‭  ·  last activity 5y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

etymology
71%
+3 −0
Is any theory according to which Yiddish is Turkic or Khazar-based supported by any serious evidence?

I never understood a bit of Yiddish until I started to understand a bit of German. In my understanding Yiddish is a German language seasoned with words and sentences in Hebrew, Aramaic and possibl...

1 answer  ·  posted 5y ago by deleted user  ·  last activity 5y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

German Yiddish Turkic Khazar Cuman