Activity for PSTH
| Type | On... | Excerpt | Status | Date |
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| Edit | Post #286825 |
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| Edit | Post #286825 |
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| Edit | Post #286825 | Initial revision | — | over 1 year ago |
| Question | — |
If assūmptiō = 'take up', then can ad- (prefix) = 'up'? But why, when super- = 'up'? 1. Are these definitions correct? Even though p. 262 below (bottom scan) doesn't list "take up" as a meaning of assūmptiō? >(13th, from Latin assūmptiō, the act of taking up, from Latin assūmere, which is ... to assume). >A little on etymology: the word “assumption” comes from the Latin “as... (more) |
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| Edit | Post #286794 |
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| Edit | Post #286794 |
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| Edit | Post #286794 |
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| Edit | Post #286794 |
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| Edit | Post #286794 |
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| Edit | Post #286794 |
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| Edit | Post #286794 |
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| Edit | Post #286794 |
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| Edit | Post #286814 |
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| Edit | Post #286814 |
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| Edit | Post #286814 | Initial revision | — | almost 2 years ago |
| Question | — |
What semantic notions underlie "inmost, innermost" (intimus) 🡲 with "make known, announce" (intimo)? How did intimus "inmost, innermost, deepest" (adj.) semantically shift to 🡺 intimare "make known, announce, impress" ? These meanings are polar opposites! If something is inmost, then it's private — and you wouldn't "make known" or "announce" a secret! >## intimate (adj.) on Etymonline > >... (more) |
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| Edit | Post #286737 |
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| Edit | Post #286794 |
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| Edit | Post #286794 |
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| Edit | Post #286794 |
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| Edit | Post #286794 |
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| Edit | Post #286794 |
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| Edit | Post #286794 |
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| Edit | Post #286794 | Initial revision | — | almost 2 years ago |
| Question | — |
Isn't lībra pondō circumlocutory? Because both lībra and pondō meant "weight"? Isn't lībra pondō redundant#Rhetoric)? It feels pleonastic and tautological) — because both lībra and pondō meant "weight" — see below. Wikipedia translates lībra pondō as "("the weight measured in libra"), in which the word pondo is the ablative singular of the Latin noun pondus ("weight")"... (more) |
— | almost 2 years ago |
| Edit | Post #286739 |
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— | almost 2 years ago |
| Comment | Post #286762 |
Thanks! Yes this helps. But why use *des-* + *metre* which literally means put away, if lawyers didn't mean "put away"? Why not use the French etymon for "send away"? (more) |
— | almost 2 years ago |
| Comment | Post #279490 |
Thanks Jirka! The wording in "distribute (blows)" still befuddles me. As a Latinate verb, "Distribute" is used formally and legalistically, as in "distribute" money, funds, gifts, etc... I've never heard of a native English speaker say "distribute (blows)"! (more) |
— | almost 2 years ago |
| Comment | Post #286620 |
Isn't this the same question as [Is it correct to use "me too" and "I too"?](https://english.stackexchange.com/q/4576) ? Did you try to Google, before posting?
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— | almost 2 years ago |
| Comment | Post #279490 |
Thanks Jirka! The wording in "distribute (blows)" still befuddles me. As a Latinate verb, "Distribute" is used formally and legalistically, as in "distribute" money, funds, gifts, etc... I've never heard of a native English speaker say "distribute (blows)"! (more) |
— | almost 2 years ago |
| Comment | Post #286653 |
Isn't this the same question as
- [Why isn't plural ihr used for Formal instead of Sie?](https://german.stackexchange.com/q/29602)
- [Why does sie have two different meanings?](https://redd.it/vamgcb)
- [Why is it that in German, the words for "she", "they" and polite "you" is all the ... (more) |
— | almost 2 years ago |
| Edit | Post #286127 |
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— | almost 2 years ago |
| Edit | Post #286742 | Initial revision | — | almost 2 years ago |
| Question | — |
How did commeātus semantically shift from meaning "passage" 🢂 to "leave of absence"? What semantic notions underlie meaning 1 ("The act of coming and going") 🡺 with 5 ("Leave of absence)? Please fill in the gaps, and show the steps, between meanings 1-4 and 5? The Oxford Latin Dictionary didn't expatiate on the semantic shift from 4 to 5, and skilled steps! I scanned Oxford Lati... (more) |
— | almost 2 years ago |
| Comment | Post #286640 |
This does not answer my question at all. You didn't read my post! I quoted that same Etymonline at the bottom.
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| Edit | Post #286737 |
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| Edit | Post #286127 |
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| Edit | Post #286127 |
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| Edit | Post #286736 |
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| Edit | Post #286127 |
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| Edit | Post #286741 |
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| Edit | Post #286741 |
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| Edit | Post #286741 | Initial revision | — | almost 2 years ago |
| Question | — |
How did in- + partire compound to mean "communicate as knowledge of information" (impart)? What semantic notions underlie in- + partire 🡺 with "communicate as knowledge or information"? This semantic shift flummoxes me, because in- + partire "`was not originally restricted to immaterial things but now usually is only in reference to qualities`". Undeniably, communication can't be physic... (more) |
— | almost 2 years ago |
| Edit | Post #286737 |
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— | almost 2 years ago |
| Edit | Post #286740 | Initial revision | — | almost 2 years ago |
| Question | — |
What semantic notions underlie “to exchange” (PIE *meyth₂-) 🢂 “to give, bestow” 🡺 “to let go, send” (Proto-Italic *meitō)? Wiktionary asservates >May be for mītō (with lengthening of the consonant; compare mitāt), from Proto-Italic meitō, from Proto-Indo-European meyth₂- (“to exchange”), an extension of the root mey-. [1.] From the original meaning “to exchange” [2.] a semantic shift occurred to “... (more) |
— | almost 2 years ago |
| Edit | Post #286739 |
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| Edit | Post #286737 |
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| Edit | Post #286739 | Initial revision | — | almost 2 years ago |