Activity for PSTH
| Type | On... | Excerpt | Status | Date |
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| Edit | Post #279109 |
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| Edit | Post #283287 |
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| Edit | Post #284801 | Initial revision | — | over 2 years ago |
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How did 'unless' evolve to mean 'if not'? >[[Etymonline:]](http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?allowedinframe=0&search=unless&searchmode=none) mid-15c., earlier onlesse, from on lesse (than) "`on a less condition (than)`; see less. The first syllable originally on, but the negative connotation and the lack of stress changed it to un-. ... ... (more) |
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| Edit | Post #280932 |
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| Edit | Post #284731 | Initial revision | — | over 2 years ago |
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How did syn + ek + dekhesthai compound to signify 'synecdoche' (a figure of speech in which a part is used for the whole)? How do syn, ex-, dekhesthai appertain to the Modern English definition of synecdoche? I am baffled, because all 3 Greek morphemes appear UNRELATED to this literary term. 1. 'synecdoche' doesn't appertain to "with" or (any notion of) togetherness. What does syn mean here? 2. 'synecdoche' doe... (more) |
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| Edit | Post #284730 | Initial revision | — | over 2 years ago |
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Is the etymology of 'amphigory' semantically related to the English idiom 'go round in circles'? Any semantic relationship between amphigory > # amphigory (n.) > > "burlesque nonsense writing or verse," 1809, from French amphigouri (18c.), which is of unknown origin, perhaps itself a nonsense word, though the first element seems to suggest Greek amphi (see amphi-). The second sometimes is ... (more) |
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| Edit | Post #284665 |
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| Edit | Post #284665 |
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| Edit | Post #284665 | Initial revision | — | over 2 years ago |
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How did 'equity' semantically broaden to mean 'common shares'? I ask about its meaning merely for stocks here (not Equity = Assets — Liabilities). See Personal Finance For Canadians For Dummies (2018), p 217. >Equity — not to be confused with equity in real estate — is another word for stocks. >![enter image description here][1] [1]: https://i.s... (more) |
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| Edit | Post #284664 |
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| Edit | Post #284664 | Initial revision | — | over 2 years ago |
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How did 'equity' semantically shift to signify 'Assets — Liabilities'? Here I ask merely ask about Equity = Assets — Liabilities here, not its meaning as stock. 1. Why was 'equity' was adopted to describe this difference? >equity: In the real-estate world, this term refers to the difference between the market value of your home and what you owe on it. For example,... (more) |
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| Edit | Post #284662 |
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| Edit | Post #284663 |
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| Edit | Post #284663 |
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| Edit | Post #284663 |
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| Edit | Post #284663 | Initial revision | — | over 2 years ago |
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How did "bail" shift to signify "money deposited as a guarantee when released"? I fail to understand this etymology for bail (n.1), particularly the first paragraph. > [3.] "bond money, security given to obtain the release of a prisoner," late 15c., a sense that apparently developed from that of [2.] "temporary release (of an arrested person) from jail" (into the... (more) |
— | over 2 years ago |
| Edit | Post #284662 |
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| Edit | Post #284662 |
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| Edit | Post #284662 | Initial revision | — | over 2 years ago |
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How did 'security' semantically shift to signify 'tradable financial asset'? What semantic notions underlie the Latinate meanings of 'security' (quoting Etymonline first) >mid-15c., "condition of being secure," from Latin securitas, from securus "free from care" (see secure). > >secure [16] Something that is secure is etymologically ‘carefree’. The word was borrowed fr... (more) |
— | over 2 years ago |
| Comment | Post #284634 |
Many thanks! How did you happen upon Dominique Legallois's article? Google? (more) |
— | over 2 years ago |
| Edit | Post #284617 |
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| Edit | Post #284617 | Initial revision | — | over 2 years ago |
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How did « histoire », in « histoire de/que », semantically shift to signify "in order to/that"? This French StackExchange post merely paraprhased "histoire de/que" as afin de / afin que, meaning pour / pour que — all this can be translated as "in order to/that" in English. But nobody in fact mooted, let alone, expatiate the etymology of "histoire de/que"! histoire itself entered English as... (more) |
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| Edit | Post #279046 |
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| Edit | Post #279811 |
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| Edit | Post #281187 |
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| Edit | Post #283612 |
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| Edit | Post #283612 |
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| Edit | Post #283613 |
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| Edit | Post #283613 | Initial revision | — | over 2 years ago |
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How did 'videlicet' (it's permissible to see) semantically shift 🢂 to signify 'to wit, namely'? How did meaning 1 beneath semantically shift to 2? How does seeing or sight 🡲 semantically appertain to wit or knowledge? >## viz. > > 1530s, abbreviation of videlicet [2.] "that is to say, to wit, namely" (mid-15c.), from Latin videlicet, contraction of videre licet [1.] "it is permi... (more) |
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| Edit | Post #283612 | Initial revision | — | over 2 years ago |
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scilicet: How did 'it is permitted to know' semantically shift to signify 'that is to say, namely'? 1. How did signification 1 beneath semantically shift to 2? 2. I'm befuddled by the relevant of licit, because what does "permitted" here signify? Why would a Roman require permission to know something? scilicet on Etymonline. > late 14c., Latin, "you may know, you may be sure, it is certai... (more) |
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| Edit | Post #283289 |
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| Edit | Post #281175 |
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| Edit | Post #281174 |
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| Edit | Post #281085 |
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| Edit | Post #281085 |
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| Edit | Post #281085 |
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| Edit | Post #281085 |
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| Edit | Post #281085 |
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| Edit | Post #281174 |
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| Edit | Post #283289 | Initial revision | — | over 2 years ago |