Activity for PSTH
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| Edit | Post #285636 | Initial revision | — | almost 3 years ago |
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A: What semantic notions underlie "pull, drag" (in tractō) 🡒 "negotiate, bargain" (in 'treat')? I revamped Serious-Telephone142's answer for grammar. >Negotiation involves a metaphorical pushing and pulling, a give and take. This sense is preserved in the modern English word 'intractable,' referring to someone who refuses to be pulled (so to speak) on an issue. > >It is not such a leap fro... (more) |
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| Edit | Post #285633 |
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| Edit | Post #285633 |
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| Edit | Post #285633 | Initial revision | — | almost 3 years ago |
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What semantic notions underlie "pull, drag" (in tractō) 🡒 "negotiate, bargain" (in 'treat')? Etymonline below blazons the sense of "negotiate, bargain" in treat. Please see the green line for the sense of "pull, drag" from tractō. I added the red lines beside 8(b) and 9, because these senses of tractō appertain to "negotiate, bargain". Negotiation and bargaining usually require discussio... (more) |
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| Edit | Post #285624 |
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| Edit | Post #285624 | Initial revision | — | almost 3 years ago |
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What semantic notions underlie vērum's 2 superficially unrelated senses — "truly" vs. 'but; yet; however'? How did the adverb vērum semantically shift from "truly" to mean 'but, yet, however'? These 2 senses look completely unrelated to me! Image alt text Oxford Latin Dictionary (2012 2 ed), pp 2254-5. (more) |
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| Edit | Post #282694 |
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| Comment | Post #285356 |
Did you ask this on https://old.reddit.com/r/LearnHebrew/, https://old.reddit.com/r/hebrew/? (more) |
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| Edit | Post #285360 |
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| Edit | Post #285360 | Initial revision | — | almost 3 years ago |
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Why did linguists choose 'Patient' (noun) to denote this Thematic Role? > THEMES and PATIENTS are rather similar, and not all linguists distinguish between these roles. A THEME typically moves from one location or one person to another, like the letter in (31). A PATIENT (or undergoer), like the window in (35), is physically affected by the ... (more) |
— | almost 3 years ago |
| Edit | Post #285258 |
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| Edit | Post #281914 |
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| Edit | Post #285258 |
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| Edit | Post #285258 |
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| Edit | Post #281914 |
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| Edit | Post #285258 |
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| Edit | Post #285258 | Initial revision | — | almost 3 years ago |
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Why does the Latin prefix 'in-' also mean the English 'to', when Latin 'ad-' already means 'to'? I quote Etymonline on impute (v.): >early 15c., from Old French imputer, emputer (14c.) and directly from Latin imputare "to reckon, make account of, charge, ascribe," from assimilated form of in- "in, into" (from PIE root en "in")(2)) + putare "to trim, prune; reckon, clea... (more) |
— | almost 3 years ago |
| Edit | Post #285114 | Initial revision | — | almost 3 years ago |
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A: How does taking, buying, procuring (emō) semantically appertain to destruction, annihilation (perimō)? I admit I'm unschooled at Googling! Only after I wrote this post, did I stumble on Draconis's answer on Latin SE. >While emō normally means "buy", the ancestral meaning seems to have been something like "take". Compare the Proto-Slavic cognate ę-ti "take, acquire", or the distant Latin relative pō... (more) |
— | almost 3 years ago |
| Edit | Post #283613 |
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| Edit | Post #285113 |
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| Edit | Post #285113 | Initial revision | — | almost 3 years ago |
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How does taking, buying, procuring (emō) semantically appertain to destruction, annihilation (perimō)? As you can read below, emō meant to take, buy, gain, procure. But perimō meant to destroy and annihilate. Plainly, their meanings differ! So why was perimō formed from emō and compounded with per-? How does emō semantically appertain to perimō's meanings? >### peremptory [16] > >Peremptory com... (more) |
— | almost 3 years ago |
| Edit | Post #285096 | Initial revision | — | almost 3 years ago |
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A: How does "happening" appertain to "(be)falling"? u/yutani333 answered this at https://old.reddit.com/r/linguistics/comments/r5gp90/whydosomanylanguagesexpresshappeningas/hmspxm6/. >The central idea of the metaphor of "fall" > "happen" is one of agency. When something happens to you, you are generally not the agent of that action (cf. I happen (t... (more) |
— | almost 3 years ago |
| Edit | Post #284877 | Initial revision | — | about 3 years ago |
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How's inVEST semantically related to VEST? How did the "idea of dressing your capital up in different clothes" arise? Isn't "the idea of dressing one’s capital up in different clothes by putting it into a particular business, stock, etc" batty? This semantic relationship would never cross the mind of an amateur retail investor! Before reading these quotations below, I never heard of this kooky "idea of dressing o... (more) |
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| Edit | Post #281087 |
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| Edit | Post #280932 |
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| Edit | Post #284868 |
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| Edit | Post #284868 |
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| Edit | Post #284868 |
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| Edit | Post #284868 | Initial revision | — | about 3 years ago |
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What semantic notions underlie the legal meaning of 'vest' — with its original meanings of 'robe', 'gown'? How does the legal meaning of 'vest' (quoted first below) semantically appertain to its original lay meanings of 'robe', 'gown' (quoted second)? >VESTING >the satisfaction of all the requirements necessary for a right to property to become unconditional; the completion of the transfer of pr... (more) |
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| Edit | Post #284866 |
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| Edit | Post #284867 |
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| Edit | Post #284867 | Initial revision | — | about 3 years ago |
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How does saeculum ( “generation” or “lifetime") semantically relate to PIE root *se- "to sow"? Why did historical linguists impute saeculum to PIE se-? What semantic notions underlie them? All boldenings are mine. secular (adj) > c. 1300, "living in the world, not belonging to a religious order," also "belonging to the state," from Old French seculer (Modern French séculier), from Late ... (more) |
— | about 3 years ago |
| Edit | Post #284866 | Initial revision | — | about 3 years ago |
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How does propitius (“favorable, well-disposed") semantically relate to PIE root *per- (1) "forward")? Why did historical linguists impute propitius to PIE per-1? What semantic notions underlie them? All boldenings are mine. > # propitiation (n.) > > late 14c., propiciacioun, "atonement, expiation," from Late Latin propitiationem (nominative propitiatio) "an atonement," noun of action from past... (more) |
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| Edit | Post #280932 |
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| Edit | Post #280932 |
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