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Q&A

General Q&A about specific languages, language in general, and linguistics.

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60%
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Is "pervalue" an antonym of "devalue"?

Devalue is commonly used to mean diminish value. Seems like the prefix re- is sometimes used with opposite effect to de-, as in reinforce meaning to increase force or refried meaning more fried. ...

0 answers  ·  posted 7mo ago by matthewsnyder‭

60%
+1 −0
Two reads of "murremestari"

In this quiz on Yle's website I met the nice word "murremestari": https://yle.fi/a/74-20058169 Obviously this means one who masters dialects, but in that meaning I pronounce it as "murremmestari"....

0 answers  ·  posted 5mo ago by tommi‭  ·  edited 5mo ago by tommi‭

42%
+1 −2
How can I un-translate these humourous 'translations' Windows terms, from Bengali? [closed]

Here's the image of the humourous 'translations', and my wife has helped me 'untranslate' some of them, but we're stuck on some: Bill Gates has released Windows in a Bengali version called JAN...

0 answers  ·  posted 10mo ago by pureferret ‭  ·  closed 9mo ago by Jirka Hanika‭

75%
+4 −0
Has the word "humor" shifted meaning?

The original meaning of humor of course refers to the obsolete theory of the four humors and their effect on human temperament. I'm not asking about that. It appears that initially, the meaning sh...

2 answers  ·  posted 7mo ago by matthewsnyder‭  ·  last activity 4mo ago by Eric Isaac‭

81%
+7 −0
What's a "road colony"?

Lawrence Sanders, Caper, 1980. 1987 paperback edition, page 61: We saw crumbling walls, decayed ceilings, cracked plumbing fixtures, exposed electrical wiring. We saw one room that appeared to h...

1 answer  ·  posted 7mo ago by msh210‭  ·  last activity 7mo ago by Jirka Hanika‭

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+4 −0
How do linguists identify the origins of verbal habits that originate from other languages?

When an observed verbal habit has more than one potential source, and that source is likely to be a different language or dialect, how do linguists determine the most likely origin? For example, i...

0 answers  ·  posted 6mo ago by Eric Isaac‭  ·  edited 6mo ago by Eric Isaac‭

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+4 −0
How does phonology-orthography correspondence affect second language acquisition?

One difficulty I’ve seen in learning languages is matching orthography to pronunciation - especially vowels. English has several distinct sounds that a native speaker will describe as the vowel ‘e...

0 answers  ·  posted 4mo ago by Eric Isaac‭

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+4 −0
Is there a freely available sentence patterns search engine?

As the title says. Background I often find myself in the need of building an English sentence that I almost know how to get right. The scaffolding is there, but there are maybe one or two words ...

2 answers  ·  posted 9mo ago by Lorenzo Donati‭  ·  last activity 26d ago by Fred Wamsley‭

66%
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What underlying principle is at play for how objective or subjective a natural language instruction is?

I am interested in exploring a series of prompts for a large language model which move from instructions which have a clear-cut "correct result", such as the instruction to capitalize every letter ...

2 answers  ·  posted 2mo ago by Julius H.‭  ·  last activity 1mo ago by Eric Isaac‭

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+4 −0
Why do some people say "idea-r", "draw-r-ing" and "china-r"?

English speakers from certain areas, in particular British, seem to add an extra r sound after vowels. For example: Idea -> idea-r Drawing -> draw-r-ing China -> China-r What is th...

1 answer  ·  posted 11mo ago by matthewsnyder‭  ·  last activity 6mo ago by Eric Isaac‭

75%
+4 −0
Effectiveness of input-only learning

While learning a language, there are a surprising (to me at least) number of people who say that you should never output until fluent - that is, as long as you get enough input, you will eventually...

2 answers  ·  posted 11mo ago by Moshi‭  ·  last activity 10mo ago by matthewsnyder‭

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+3 −0
Are Icelandic unstressed diphthongs in loanwords supposed to be reduced?

In Icelandic, certain accented vowel letters (especially ó, á) are consistently explained as diphthongs ([ou] and [au], respectively) in pronunciation guides. Accented vowel letters are also encou...

0 answers  ·  posted 2mo ago by Jirka Hanika‭

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What grammatical category does "Weihnachten" fall into?

The German word "Weihnachten" (Christmas) is an odd one. It's a neuter noun (das Weihnachten) even though it's based on a feminine one (die Nacht, night). The traditional Christmas greetings, "Froh...

1 answer  ·  posted 4mo ago by gmcgath‭  ·  last activity 4mo ago by gmcgath‭

80%
+6 −0
Vowel insertion phenomenon

When I, maybe Br.E speaker, pronounce adverbs ending '-bly' I find myself occasionally inserting an extra vowel. So I say feeble-y, noble-y but I 'correctly' say 'nim-bly' and 'lim-ply' (I've plac...

1 answer  ·  posted 6mo ago by pureferret ‭  ·  last activity 5mo ago by Eric Isaac‭

77%
+5 −0
"Lock" and "close" in German

I was trying to explain to someone that my door can only be opened with a key, regardless of whether the door is locked or simply closed. I figured schließen would fail to express that unambiguous...

1 answer  ·  posted 8mo ago by nteodosio‭  ·  last activity 8mo ago by samcarter‭

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+1 −0
When would a sentence consist of "terdiri" with "atas" or "dari"?

The Indonesian word "terdiri" meaning "consist/s (of)" is an interesting word as it uses two words along with it: "atas" ("on/top/above") and "dari" ("from" / "than" in some cases). Every time I en...

1 answer  ·  posted 1y ago by General Sebast1an‭  ·  last activity 1y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

81%
+7 −0
What is the term for a word that is an instance of itself?

Some words are examples of the concept they name. Examples: "Word" is a word. "Noun" is a noun. "Eggcorn" is an eggcorn (a mistaken word that sounds like and has some connection to another wor...

2 answers  ·  posted 10mo ago by gmcgath‭  ·  edited 8mo ago by Moshi‭

81%
+7 −0
Does humor always spring from surprise?

It seems like a lot of humor has an element of surprise. Sudden meanings, unexpected turns of the plot, language unexpected given the context (impolite language in polite context, technical in a no...

1 answer  ·  posted 7mo ago by matthewsnyder‭  ·  last activity 6mo ago by Eric Isaac‭

83%
+8 −0
Has there ever been a situation of perfect bilingualism, without falling in diglossia?

In many places around the world there are different languages that coexist: some people speak one, some the other, and many can speak both. There are as many cases as situations: some of the langu...

1 answer  ·  posted 2y ago by fedorqui‭  ·  last activity 11mo ago by Jirka Hanika‭

25%
+1 −7
What semantic notions underlie fūrunculus (Latin for 'petty thief') 🡺 furuncle?

Wiktionary doesn't expound how furuncle ("1 cm tender red papule or fluctuant nodule") is a "transferred sense" from "pilferer (petty thief)". How do these notions in these nouns relate to each oth...

1 answer  ·  posted 1y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 1y ago by PSTH‭

80%
+6 −0
What is "nift"?

Everyone knows what "nifty" is. It's obvious, isn't it? A thing which possesses nift. But what is this mysterious nift? Looking at things that are considered nifty, I cannot quite come up with a g...

1 answer  ·  posted 7mo ago by matthewsnyder‭  ·  last activity 4mo ago by Jirka Hanika‭

85%
+10 −0
How to refer to a whole family in Icelandic?

Hi. I'm learning Icelandic and planning to visit the country a few months later. But there is a thing I can't figure out yet. For clarity, in majority of English speaking families there is just on...

1 answer  ·  posted 11mo ago by aminabzz‭  ·  last activity 11mo ago by Jirka Hanika‭

85%
+10 −0
Why "me too" and not "I too"?

I've been studying German lately, and came across something that sparked my curiosity: The way to say "me too" in German is "ich auch" - that is, "I too". A shallow glance at other Germanic languag...

1 answer  ·  posted 2y ago by Moshi‭  ·  last activity 2y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

83%
+8 −0
How did "listen to" TV become "watch"?

It seems that people used to say "listen to" and "hear" television, a holdover from radio, and that that gave way to "watch" and "see" over time. Has anyone any information on the timeline of this ...

0 answers  ·  posted 10mo ago by msh210‭  ·  edited 10mo ago by msh210‭

18%
+0 −7
How did rǣda work syntactically, after shifting from 'advise' to mean 'interpret and understand the meaning of written symbols'?

Old English rǣda semantically shifted from ‘advise, consult, guess’ to mean ‘interpret, interpret letters, read’. But isn't this semantic shift unsyntactical and infelicitous? Advisor's writin...

0 answers  ·  posted 1y ago by PSTH‭

40%
+0 −1
The use of the past simple and the past perfect in these scenarios

1 -- Are you a member of GE? -- No, I was a member for 9 years. I think Correct 2 -- Are you a member of GE? -- No, I had been a member for 9 years. I think WRONG 3 -- Are you a member of ...

0 answers  ·  posted 1y ago by user11QQ‭

78%
+9 −1
Why does German use the third person plural for the second person polite?

German has three sets of pronouns for the second person: the familiar singular (du), the familiar plural (ihr), and the polite singular or plural (Sie). The polite form is identical with the third ...

2 answers  ·  posted 2y ago by gmcgath‭  ·  last activity 2y ago by Keelan‭

28%
+0 −3
If assūmptiō = 'take up', then can ad- (prefix) = 'up'? But why, when super- = 'up'?

Are these definitions correct? Even though p. 262 below (bottom scan) doesn't list "take up" as a meaning of assūmptiō? (13th, from Latin assūmptiō, the act of taking up, from Latin assūmere...

1 answer  ·  posted 1y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 1y ago by PSTH‭

33%
+1 −4
How can fulsome constitute "a case of ironic understatement"?

Pretend that you're Devil's Advocate. 1. How can you possibly contend that fulsome is "a case of ironic understatement"? What's ironic? What's fulsome understating? "fulsome" feels r...

2 answers  ·  posted 2y ago by PSTH‭  ·  last activity 7mo ago by matthewsnyder‭

83%
+8 −0
Why do Chinese people say "idear"?

In my experience of speaking with immigrants from China to the United States, it seems many of them pronounce the word idea with a final ɹ (even before a consonant). Why?

2 answers  ·  posted 1y ago by msh210‭  ·  last activity 6mo ago by Eric Isaac‭

75%
+4 −0
English dialects and he/she versus it

In normed Finnish language hän (he/she) refers to people, while se (it) refers to non-people. However, in spoken language, at least in many dialects, se is used also for people. (Both hän and se ar...

2 answers  ·  posted 2y ago by tommi‭  ·  edited 2y ago by Lundin‭

71%
+3 −0
What does the letter do ৡ in Bangla?

There are 14 অ বর্গীয় (O borgiyo) letters in Bengali. But couldn't find out in book what they are. I know that there are 11 vowel letters in Bengali. But while looking for অ বর্গীয়, I just found th...

1 answer  ·  posted 2y ago by deleted user  ·  last activity 2y ago by deleted user

25%
+0 −4
How did in- + partire compound to mean "communicate as knowledge of information" (impart)?

What semantic notions underlie in- + partire 🡺 with "communicate as knowledge or information"? This semantic shift flummoxes me, because in- + partire "was not originally restricted to immaterial ...

0 answers  ·  posted 2y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 1y ago by PSTH‭

25%
+0 −4
What semantic notions underlie “to exchange” (PIE *meyth₂-) 🢂 “to give, bestow” 🡺 “to let go, send” (Proto-Italic *meitō)?

Wiktionary asservates May be for *mītō (with lengthening of the consonant; compare mitāt), from Proto-Italic *meitō, from Proto-Indo-European *meyth₂- (“to exchange”), an extension of the root...

0 answers  ·  posted 2y ago by PSTH‭

28%
+0 −3
How did (the cross-linguistic univerbation) 'nothing/not/none/no + less' semantically shift to mean 'despite'?

Several West European languages, most spoken in 2022, feature cognate adverbs with the meaning of ''nevertheless' by univerbating "nothing/not/none/no" +"less". What semantic notions underlie...

0 answers  ·  posted 2y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 2y ago by PSTH‭

28%
+0 −3
What semantic notions underlie "inmost, innermost" (intimus) 🡲 with "make known, announce" (intimo)?

How did intimus "inmost, innermost, deepest" (adj.) semantically shift to 🡺 intimare "make known, announce, impress" ? These meanings are polar opposites! If something is inmost, then it's private...

0 answers  ·  posted 1y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 1y ago by PSTH‭

28%
+0 −3
How did 'in' + 'as' + 'much' (⟶ inasmuch) compound to mean "in an equal or like degree"?

I quote the OED 's etymology for the adverb inasmuch. originally 3 words in as much (in northern Middle English in als mikel), subsequently sometimes written as 2 words, in asmuch, and now (espe...

0 answers  ·  posted 2y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 2y ago by PSTH‭

80%
+6 −0
Why is the third person singular conjugation different in the past tense?

Generally speaking, German verbs inflect with the following table Person Inflection Example ich -e sage, arbeite du -(e)st sagst, arbeitest er/sie/es -(e)t sagt, a...

1 answer  ·  posted 1y ago by Moshi‭  ·  last activity 1y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

77%
+5 −0
Plural agreement with a syntactically singular subject

Many quantity words trigger agreement with their object rather than themselves. For instance, syntactically, "a lot, "a bunch", "an amount" seem to all be singular. However, as a native speaker, "T...

1 answer  ·  posted 1y ago by Moshi‭  ·  last activity 1y ago by Jirka Hanika‭

33%
+0 −2
What semantic notions underlie vērum's 2 superficially unrelated senses — "truly" vs. 'but; yet; however'?

How did the adverb vērum semantically shift from "truly" to mean 'but, yet, however'? These 2 senses look completely unrelated to me! Oxford Latin Dictionary (2012 2 ed), pp 2254-5.

0 answers  ·  posted 2y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 2y ago by PSTH‭

50%
+0 −0
Is the etymology of 'amphigory' semantically related to the English idiom 'go round in circles'?

Any semantic relationship between amphigory amphigory (n.) "burlesque nonsense writing or verse," 1809, from French amphigouri (18c.), which is of unknown origin, perhaps itself a nonsense word...

0 answers  ·  posted 2y ago by PSTH‭

37%
+1 −3
Isn't lībra pondō circumlocutory? Because both lībra and pondō meant "weight"?

Isn't lībra pondō redundant? It feels pleonastic and tautological — because both lībra and pondō meant "weight" — see below. Wikipedia translates lībra pondō as "("the weight measured in libr...

0 answers  ·  posted 2y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 1y ago by PSTH‭

81%
+7 −0
Where, here, and there: What is the origin, and can it be generalized?

I recently stumbled upon this wikipedia page and it got me thinking. Take a look at the following table (terms are lifted from the Wikipedia page) W (interrogative) H (proximal) T (medial)...

0 answers  ·  posted 2y ago by Moshi‭

28%
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How does 'contango' semantically appertain to (1) 'continue'? (2) Or 'contain' as in Spanish 'contengo'?

I know that in Spanish, contengo is the first person singular conjugation of contener "to contain". I surmise that English transcribed the Spanish /e/ into an "a". Etymonline 1853, "charge made...

0 answers  ·  posted 2y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 2y ago by PSTH‭

28%
+0 −3
How did mittō (to send) semantically shift 🢂 in Vulgar Latin 🡺 to mean "put"?

Wiktionary allegates that, for the Latin mittō (“to send”), The semantic shift from "send" to "put" probably occurred in Vulgar Latin. What semantic notions underlie "send" and "put"? I can'...

0 answers  ·  posted 2y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 2y ago by PSTH‭

80%
+6 −0
When does "me-" go on verbs?

So I started learning Indonesian through a Duolingo course for 2 weeks now, and I've gotten to the "Me- Verbs" part as I'm writing this question. I have already learned a few verbs from past lesso...

1 answer  ·  posted 2y ago by General Sebast1an‭  ·  last activity 1y ago by General Sebast1an‭

75%
+4 −0
Which phrase is correct? (Is using plural form for singular object make sense?) (Does using plural form for singular object make sense?)

Replying to the last edit (#4)... Since it language related site hence I am asking the question by creating new Q rather than commenting there. The earlier title was Is using plural form for sin...

3 answers  ·  posted 2y ago by deleted user  ·  edited 2y ago by deleted user

28%
+0 −3
What semantic notions underlie 'to advise, counsel, guess' (rǣda) 🡺 'peruse' (read)?

How did ‘advise, consult, guess’ semantically shift 🢂 to signify ‘interpret, interpret letters, read’? How do they semantically appertain? read [OE] In most western European languages, the wor...

0 answers  ·  posted 1y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 1y ago by PSTH‭

80%
+6 −0
Is obrigado used in case of unclear gender of the author?

In Portuguese a male speaker thanks with an «obrigado», while a female with an «obrigada». I am reading a text (some thank you notice for buying some mass-produced industrial product with no obvio...

1 answer  ·  posted 2y ago by tommi‭  ·  last activity 1y ago by Quasímodo‭

37%
+1 −3
What semantic notions underlie 'con-' + 'sign' 🡺 with "deliver or transmit (goods) for sale or custody"?

How did con- + sign semantically shift 🡲 to this modern sense in Commerce? Why did con- + sign shift so radically, but NOT 'sign'? In Modern English, "sign" alone doesn't possess this Comm...

0 answers  ·  posted 1y ago by PSTH‭  ·  edited 1y ago by PSTH‭